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Verbal Reasoning

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Foundations: Text Completion & Sentence Equivalence6 questions

Directions: For each blank, select one entry from the corresponding column of choices. Fill all blanks in the way that best completes the text.

Q1
All Jon cared about was getting an A, and because the team project did not count toward his grade in the course, he felt ____________ the work and did not do his share.

A apathy toward

B zeal for

C loathing for

D cheerful about

E antagonism toward

Answer: A

1. A

The sentence begins by telling you that Jon only cares about getting an A, and then it says that the team project did not affect his grade. The blank needs a term for how Jon “felt” about the project, and the key words “and because” indicate that the blank will be consistent with the information given. Furthermore, the key word “and” in the last part of the sentence means the blank will be consistent with Jon not doing his share of the work. Predict that Jon will not care about the team project or will feel “indifference” toward it. Answer choice (A) apathy toward is a match for your prediction and the correct answer. Apathy is composed of a- (“not”) and path (“emotion”) and is related to words like empathy, sympathy, and antipathy. Learn these words as a group with the same root.

The word zeal (“strong interest”), in choice (B), is the opposite of what is needed. Note that zealous means “very enthusiastic” and a zealot is “a fanatic” for some cause. Another word beginning with z, zest, also means “great enthusiasm.” Learn these words as a group with related meanings. Choice (D) cheerful about is incorrect for the same reason; it is positive, but you need a neutral or mildly negative word. Choice (C) loathing means “extreme dislike,” and choice (E) antagonism toward means “dislike” or “conflict”; both words are too negative. While Jon does not care about the project, he has no reason to hate it. When you studied literature, you may have learned that the protagonist is the main character of the story and the antagonist is the person with whom the main character experiences conflict.

Q2
To her friends’ (i) ____________, because she had never expressed an interest in travel, Lovia decided to teach English in Thailand, (ii) ____________ in that country for a year.

Blank (i)

A

B

C

Blank (ii)

D

E

F

Answer: B, D

2. B, D

The sentence says that Lovia had never been interested in travel, but she is going to Thailand. Her decision would come as a “surprise” to her friends, and choice (B) astonishment is correct for blank (i). There is no evidence to support the idea that her friends are feeling either delight (A) or dismay (C) about her decision. You need a neutral word for this blank.

Lovia will be abroad for a year, so the choice that fits blank (ii) is (D) sojourning (“staying temporarily”). This word is related to journey, which also relates to travel, and to journal. You might think of a personal journal as a record of one’s “trip” through life. She is not (E) retiring because she will be working as a teacher. (F) persevering means “being persistent” or “overcoming obstacles,” and nothing in the sentence indicates that she will encounter adversity.

Q3
The citizens met with their senator to express (i) ____________, arguing that if tax rates (ii) ____________ any further, taxes would become (iii) ____________, allowing hardworking individuals to keep little of their well-earned income.

Directions: Select the two answer choices that, when used to complete the sentence, fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.

Blank (i)

A

B

C

Blank (ii)

D

E

F

Blank (iii)

G

H

I

Answer: C, E, H

3. C, E, H

People can “express” a wide range of thoughts and feelings (blank (i)), and tax rates can go up, go down, or stay the same (blank (ii)). Start with the third blank, which has the most context clues.

The word for blank (iii) must be consistent with the last part of the sentence, which is about not letting people keep their money—or taking their money away from them. The match is choice (H) confiscatory (“seizing property”). This word’s root is the same as in the word fiscal, meaning “financial”: your fiscal condition is reduced if the authorities confiscate your property. Choice (G) congruent means “in agreement”; when you study geometry for the Quantitative section, you will study congruent shapes, which are identical to or in complete agreement with each other. Choice (I) consummate, when used as an adjective, means “perfect.” This word has the same root as summit, or “highest point,” and if someone describes you as the consummate professional, she is saying that you bring together (con-) the highest or best qualities of a professional.

Given that the tax rates might become confiscatory, the citizens must be concerned that taxes will “rise,” so this is your prediction for blank (ii). Choice (E) escalated is correct. Think of riding up an escalator in a building. Or think of scaling, or climbing, a wall—escalate and scale share the same root. Choice (D) economized would relate to “spending less money,” and choice (F) elaborated would mean “to develop.” Neither of these choices describes rising taxes.

Now for blank (i): Because the citizens believe taxes will go up and take most of their money, and they are meeting with their senator about this prospect, they are undoubtedly worried. Choice (C) apprehension conveys worry or fear and is correct. Apprehension is an interesting word because it can mean “capture,” “understanding,” or “fear.” Here’s a sentence to think about: If the criminal had apprehended that the police would soon apprehend him, he would have felt apprehension. Choice (A) euphoria means “bliss” and is the opposite of what these folks are feeling. Choice (B) composure means “calm” and also does not reflect what the citizens feel.

Q4
Our manager holds as a ____________ that an employee with a messy desk is irredeemably lazy, and she therefore demands that all members of her staff keep their work areas meticulously organized.

A whim

B dogma

C hypothesis

D fancy

E tenet

F polity

Answer: B, E

4. B, E

When this manager sees a messy desk, she forms a harshly negative opinion of the employee, and as a result (“therefore”), she “demands” that her staff keep their desks clean. Based on the sentence, you can conclude that the manager holds a “strong belief” on this subject. Answer choices (B) dogma and (E) tenet both mean an “idea held to be true” and are the correct answers. If someone is dogmatic, that person is very opinionated. Imagine someone refusing to let go of an idea like a dog refusing to let go of a bone! Tenet comes from the Latin word meaning “to hold” and shares its root with tenable (“can be held, defensible”) and tenacity (“holding on persistently”).

Choices (A) whim and (D) fancy both relate to a “passing thought.” While these words can have similar meanings, they do not fit the context of this sentence. Choice (C) hypothesis is a “guess” or a starting point for exploring a problem, not a strongly held belief. Choice (F) polity means a “government” (think “politics”) and does not fit the sentence.

Q5
Elena liked Joe a great deal, but she soon tired of his friends, pseudointellectuals who propounded inane theories based on ____________ interpretations of neo-Marxism and existentialism.

A spurious

B terse

C fallacious

D succinct

E bellicose

F blithe

Answer: A, C

5. A, C

Elena liked Joe, but the key word “but” indicates she has a negative view of his friends. Why? They are “pseudointellectuals” and their theories are “inane.” The prefix pseudo- means “fake,” and inane means “silly.” Either one of these clues tells you that they don’t understand the complex philosophies mentioned in the sentence. Predict that the word in the blank means their “interpretations” are actually misinterpretations; that is, they are “false.” Choices (A) spurious and (C) fallacious both relate to “falseness” and fit the sentence. The word spurious is derived from the Latin word for “illegitimate child.” It is not etymologically related to the word spur, but you can think of a railroad spur, which looks like any other track but is not the main line and doesn’t go very far. Fallacious, like fallacy and false, comes from a Latin word for “deceive.”

Choices (B) terse and (D) succinct both relate to “not using many words,” and the sentence gives no reason to believe Joe’s friends do not talk much (one rather imagines the opposite). Choice (E) bellicose means “looking for a fight” (the root is bell meaning “war”), and while this is a negatively charged word, it does not fit the clues in the sentence; his friends are wrong but not necessarily argumentative. Choice (F) blithe means “cheerful” or “without worries” (it shares a root in Old English with bliss, which is “extreme happiness”); this is a positively charged word.

Q6
Despite the many pleasures of staying in a hotel, such as a hot shower and clean sheets, many people ____________ such comforts in favor of cold water from a nearby stream and a sleeping bag in order to savor a revitalizing proximity to nature.

A extol

B deprecate

C renounce

D spurn

E discountenance

F eulogize

Answer: C, D

6. C, D

The key word “Despite” signals a contrast, so people who camp instead of staying indoors “reject” the comforts of a hotel. Choice (C) renounce means “to put aside,” and choice (D) spurn means “to reject scornfully.” You may have heard or read the expression “to spurn someone’s advances,” meaning to let someone know that you are absolutely not interested in a romantic relationship. These words both give the sentence the same sense and are correct.

Choices (A) extol and (F) eulogize both mean “to praise highly.” People who opt for camping would praise being close to nature highly, according to the sentence, but this blank relates to the hotel experience. Thus, these are the opposite of what is needed. By the way, don’t confuse a eulogy with an elegy: both are often written about someone who has died, but a eulogy is prose while an elegy is a poem and the focus of a eulogy is on praising the subject while an elegy’s focus is on expressing grief. Choices (B) deprecate and (E) discountenance are negatively charged, which might have made them tempting. However, both mean “to express disapproval,” and while the sentence indicates that nature lovers reject staying in a hotel for themselves, there is no evidence that they disapprove of other people staying in hotels.

Foundations: Reading Comprehension10 questions

Questions 1–3 are based on the passage below.

In modern literary history, both budding and well-established authors have used secondary careers as book reviewers to hone their craft. George Orwell stands out as perhaps the most notable example with his prolific career as both a book reviewer and author. Analysis of his critiques of contemporaneous works offers insight into his belief that his personal world view should be reflected in the writings of his peers. Unrivaled in his keen insight into the core arguments of the seminal works of his time, Orwell was adept at pointing out fatal flaws in logic and never hesitated to enumerate what was wanting, even at the cost of infuriating other authors, both foes and friends. Indeed, Orwell’s review of H. G. Wells’ Mind at the End of Its Tether led to the end of their friendship, a fact in which there is a tinge of irony. While Orwell casts Wells’ work as a disjointed and pessimistic diatribe about a bleak future, the description rings eerily similar to some reviews of Orwell’s own masterpiece, 1984.

Q1
The author of the passage would likely agree with each of the following statements about George Orwell EXCEPT:

A Orwell critiqued the works of many of his contemporaries.

B Orwell valued journalistic integrity over personal relationships.

C In 1984, Orwell delved into some of the same bleak themes that Wells did in Mind at the End of Its Tether.

D Orwell’s reviews had greater literary value than his novels.

E Orwell was skilled at dissecting the key ideas presented in other authors’ works.

Answer: D

1. D

For this Inference EXCEPT question, examine each answer choice in light of the passage. The fourth sentence points out that Orwell reviewed “the seminal works of his time,” which would be the books written by his contemporaries. The author would thus agree with the statement in (A), so it can be eliminated. The last two sentences show that Orwell’s negative review of Wells’ final work led to the end of their friendship, so (B) is out. The final sentence shows that the pessimistic view of the future in Wells’ work is similar to that presented in Orwell’s 1984. The author would also agree with the statement in (C), so eliminate it as well. While the passage highlights Orwell’s work as a reviewer, it states that he had a “prolific career as both a book reviewer and author.” There is no evidence in the passage to support the idea that Orwell’s work as a reviewer outweighed his work as an author. The author of the passage would not agree with this statement, so (D) is correct. The fourth sentence eliminates (E). The phrase “unrivaled in his keen insight into the core arguments of the seminal works of his time” is another way to say that Orwell was skilled at dissecting the key ideas presented in the work of other authors.

Consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.

Q2
Which of the following statements accurately describes Orwell’s approach to reviewing books?

A Objective criticism tempered by mutual admiration

B Invective-laden diatribe prompted by a competitive nature

C Insightful analysis unswayed by personal attachment

Answer: C

2. C

All-that-apply questions require consideration of each of the answer choices separately. In (A), objective criticism does describe Orwell’s approach, but the second part of the statement—that the criticism was tempered by mutual admiration—is proved false by Orwell’s negative review of his friend Wells’ work and the subsequent end of their friendship. Eliminate (A). The “invective-laden diatribe” in (B) is an unnecessarily extreme reference to Orwell’s review of Wells’ book. While it may be true that Orwell felt some competitive rivalry with his contemporaries, there is no evidence for this idea in the passage. Eliminate (B). The passage mentions both Orwell’s “unrivaled keen insight” and the fact that he did not allow his friendship with Wells to affect the review that he wrote. Therefore, there is support in the passage for both parts of statement (C), making this choice the only correct answer.

Q3
According to the passage, Orwell’s review of Mind at the End of Its Tether

A ironically led to record sales of Mind at the End of Its Tether

B cast in a negative light themes that he addressed in his novel 1984

C was irrelevant because it lacked a clear understanding of Wells’ core argument

D is a testament to his singular focus on pointing out flaws in the works of his contemporaries

E marked the pinnacle of his prolific career as a book reviewer

Answer: B

3. B

This question asks for an accurate description of the effects of Orwell’s review of Mind at the End of Its Tether. The last two sentences of the passage talk about how the review ended Orwell and Wells’ friendship and the irony of Orwell’s negative review of the book given its similarities to his own novel, 1984. (B) is correct because it picks up on the fact that Orwell’s negative review of Mind at the End of Its Tether addressed themes also found in 1984. (A) is incorrect because sales of Mind at the End of Its Tether are not mentioned in the passage. (C), (D), and (E) all use extreme language—“irrelevant,” “singular,” and “pinnacle”—that is not supported in the passage.

Questions 4–6 are based on the passage below.

The problematic relationship between Heidegger’s political views and his seminal status as a philosopher is a continuing point of contention in the historical assessment of his achievements. His contributions to Continental philosophy in works such as Sein und Zeit have been read, in some circles, through the critical lens of his affiliation with National Socialism in Nazi Germany during the Second World War. His writing during that time covered a broad range of subjects, including philosophy, politics, and aesthetics. His work on ontology directly influenced his contemporary philosophical thinkers, such as Jean-Paul Sartre. Though he is widely regarded within philosophical circles as one of the preeminent luminaries, along with Husserl, in the modern development of ontology, certain scholars and thinkers militate against the value of his thought in its entirety. To regard Heidegger’s work highly would be, in their eyes, to absolve him of his support of the politics of Nazism, even though he is being evaluated solely on the basis of his contributions to the study of philosophy and not in any political context.

Q4
Select the sentence in the passage in which the author summarizes the competing attitudes toward Heidegger within the academic community.

Answer: Though he is widely regarded within philosophical circles as one of the 5preeminent luminaries, along with Husserl, in the modern development of 5ontology, certain scholars and thinkers militate against the value of his thought in its entirety.

4. Though he is widely regarded within philosophical circles as one of the preeminent luminaries, along with Husserl, in the modern development of ontology, certain scholars and thinkers militate against the value of his thought in its entirety.

The sentence you’re looking for is one that sums up how the intellectual community, as a whole, views Heidegger. This means the sentence should encompass all parties, both those that are receptive to him and those that view him negatively. The second sentence, “His contributions to Continental philosophy in works such as Sein und Zeit have been read, in some circles, through the critical lens of his affiliation with National Socialism in Nazi Germany during the Second World War,” may be tempting, but this is telling you the way in which his work has been interpreted, not the reactions or attitudes of the academic community. It also doesn’t mention any “competing” feelings toward his work. The last sentence provides justification for why certain scholars view him as they do, but it does not account for the other schools of thought. The next-to-last sentence, “Though he is widely regarded within philosophical circles as one of the preeminent luminaries, along with Husserl, in the modern development of ontology, certain scholars and thinkers militate against the value of his thought in its entirety,” sums up the complete range of reaction to Heidegger across the academic community.

Consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.

Q5
The author asserts which of the following about Heidegger?

A Some academics view him positively for both his political and philosophical work.

B His legacy has been affected by opinions he expressed during World War II.

C Some academics view him positively, while others cannot countenance him at all.

Answer: B, C

5. B, C

Choice (A) is incorrect. The author nowhere explicitly states or implies that anyone has a positive reaction to Heidegger’s political views. The author only intimates that scholars working in the study of philosophy have been influenced by his work in that field. Choice (B) is correct because the author states that Heidegger’s work, even in philosophy, has been viewed through this “critical lens.” Answer choice (C) is also correct. The author cites philosophers, such as Sartre, who have reacted positively to Heidegger’s philosophy and asserts that those who view him negatively do so because they cannot abide by absolving him of guilt for his support of the Nazis.

Q6
Which conclusion is implied by the author in his description of the status of Heidegger’s legacy?

A Heidegger’s work should not be given serious recognition due to his political views.

B The Second World War fostered a climate of intellectual innovation in Europe.

C It is possible to critically evaluate Heidegger’s contributions to philosophy while not absolving him of responsibility for his political views.

D Scholars should consider the entire body of work of a thinker, in every field to which he or she contributed, when assessing that thinker’s legacy in any one field.

E It is impossible to divorce the study of politics from the study of philosophy.

Answer: C

6. C

This question asks you to engage the text at a deep level and to infer what the author is suggesting. It is important to pay close attention to the author’s tone. The passage’s Main Idea is the evaluation of a thinker’s body of work by academic scholars in different fields. The author points out both Heidegger’s tremendous accomplishments in the field of philosophy and his less-than-admirable involvement with the Nazi party. Choice (B) is dealt with nowhere in the passage. Choice (E) goes beyond the scope of the passage. Choice (A) is incorrect, because the author emphasizes Heidegger’s influence on philosophers like Sartre and makes certain to point out that it is in “their eyes” that Heidegger is so viewed, not the author’s own. Choice (D) is incorrect because it is the opposite of what the author implies. Choice (C) is the correct answer because, in the last sentence of the passage, the author stresses that it is only Heidegger’s contributions to philosophy that are being considered, not his political views. The author seems to be suggesting that the two can be judged apart from one another.

Questions 7–10 are based on the passage below.

A common misconception is that color refers only to a wavelength of light in the visual spectrum, from about 400 nanometers (violet) to about 700 nanometers (red). When an object reflects light of a given wavelength, we see that object as the corresponding color. So, for example, we might see a Braeburn apple as red and a Granny Smith apple as green because they reflect light of different wavelengths. However, color is not merely a property of an external physical object but rather the result of an interaction among that object, the light that shines on it, and, finally but most significantly, the manner in which the human eye and brain make sense of the reflected light stimulus. Thus, the study of color can properly fall as much within the realm of psychology as that of physics.

Experience is one psychological factor that informs our perception of color. For example, a child eating by a campfire that emits a great deal of yellow light may believe that the melted Cheddar cheese served on white bread on a white paper plate is actually a white cheese like Swiss or Monterey Jack. This occurs because the yellow light reflects off both the plate and the bread, which the child knows are white, and off the cheese, which the child isn’t sure about. All the objects therefore appear to be the same color, and the child assumes that color is white. On the other hand, an adult with experience viewing things in firelight would intuitively adjust her perception to account for the yellow light and would not make the same mistake.

Color is also perceived differently depending on its context. The noted abstract painter Josef Albers produced an influential body of work based on this phenomenon, including his series Homage to the Square featuring nested squares of different colors. In one psychological experiment testing perception, the letter X is presented against two colored backgrounds. Although the letter is identical each time it is presented, it appears olive green in one context and lavender in the other context. This effect is achieved when the X is given a low-saturation blue color, or gray-blue, and the backgrounds are also low-saturation colors with hues on either side of blue on the color wheel. Because blue falls between purple and green on the color wheel, a gray-blue X against a gray-purple background will look gray-green, or olive, and the same X against an olive background will look gray-purple, or lavender. In a similar manner, an intermediate color will look different against different primary color backdrops; teal, for instance, will look green against a blue background and blue against a green background.

Other subjective factors also influence the experience of color. These include cultural norms (Westerners most often name blue as their favorite color, whereas in China red is preferred) and simply what we learn about color. Consider that if a child learns that stop signs are “red,” the child will call them “red.” Another person in that society will also have learned to call stop signs “red.” However, whether the two people are experiencing the same color is unknown since that experience exists only in the mind. Therefore, if one were to tell an interior designer that color is an immutable physical property of objects, one would meet with skepticism. Before placing the electric blue sofa in a client’s living room, the designer considers the color of light the various light fixtures will emanate, the colors of the carpet and walls, and her client’s feelings about electric blue, which after all may not even be the same color in the client’s mind as it is in the designer’s.

Q7
Which of the following statements best expresses the main idea of the passage?

A Color is primarily a psychological construct, and therefore the study of physics is not relevant to an understanding of how color is perceived.

B The phenomenon of color is a combined effect of the wavelength of light that shines on an object, the wavelength of light reflected by the object, and the human mind’s perception of the light stimulus that comes to the eye.

C Scientists have determined that although people may perceive color differently in different situations, color is an immutable characteristic of objects.

D Creative professionals, such as artists and interior designers, view color significantly differently than do scientists.

E To say that an object is a particular color is meaningless because color is a subjective perception influenced by experience, culture, and context and cannot therefore be ascertained to be a specific physical characteristic.

Answer: B

7. B

In the first paragraph, the author states that color is not only a function of wavelength, and then the key word “However” signals what color actually is: “not merely” a physical property, “but rather” the product of an interaction among the object’s properties (specifically, how it reflects light), the light itself, and the human observer. The rest of the passage elaborates on this interaction of the physical properties of light and the perception of light. Answer choice (B) states this idea and is correct.

Choice (A) is extreme because of the words “primarily” in the first part and “not relevant” in the second part; in the last sentence of paragraph 1, the author says the study of color is appropriate for both psychology and physics. The word “immutable” in choice (C) means “unchanging” and thus directly contradicts the Main Idea of the passage, which is that color is a construct of multiple factors and these factors can vary for any given object. Choice (D) might be inferred from the passage, but this is not the main point of the passage, which is about the nature of color and not about people’s reactions to color. Choice (E) is extreme due to the word “meaningless.” Although objects may appear different colors to different people under different conditions, and one can never be sure what another person means by the word red, the author never says it is without meaning to, for example, describe an apple as red.

Q8
The author would be most likely to agree with which of the following ideas?

A When attempting to achieve a particular aesthetic effect, a graphic designer should consider how the color used for the border of an advertisement will appear next to the color of the text.

B A decorator working for a client in China would not purchase an electric blue sofa for that individual’s living room, because blue is not a preferred color in China.

C Companies designing packaging for their products should avoid using gray tones because these would cause different customers to see the colors differently, thereby rendering the brand message inconsistent.

D Because red is a primary color, a wall should not be painted red if a sofa of an intermediate color will be placed against it, as the sofa’s color may be distorted by its proximity to the wall.

E Artists often explore the interaction of adjacent colors when juxtaposing different forms in the composition of their paintings.

Answer: A

8. A

To prepare to answer this Inference question, review the points the author has made in the passage. The correct answer must be true given what the author has said. In paragraph 3, the author states that the color of an object changes depending on nearby colors. Therefore, answer choice (A) is supported.

Choice (B) misuses the detail that blue is not the favorite color of most Chinese. This does not mean that no Chinese person would like an electric blue sofa—after all, most people own objects of many colors, including colors that are not their favorite—and some Chinese people may prefer blue. Choice (C) is not supported. Using low-saturation or grayish tones next to each other can result in colors looking different than they would in isolation or next to other colors, but it does not result in different people perceiving the colors differently. Choice (D) is a distortion. The passage states that an item of an intermediate color that is placed near a color-wheel-adjacent primary color, such as orange placed near red, will look more like the primary color on the other side of it (orange next to red will look more yellow). Nothing suggests this effect is undesirable, so choice (D)’s “should not” is unsupported. Also, the passage only discusses the interaction of intermediate and primary colors that are next to each other on the color wheel, but this answer choice refers to any intermediate color being placed next to red. Finally, although one artist, Josef Albers, worked with color in this way, the passage does not suggest that artists in general “often” do this, and choice (E) is incorrect.

Consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.

Q9
According to the passage, which of the following accurately describes human perception of color?

A A low-saturation color against a low-saturation background of an adjacent hue on the color wheel will appear a similar shade as the other adjacent hue.

B An intermediate color against a background that is one of the intermediate color’s component primary colors will be difficult to distinguish from that background.

C Letters written in an intermediate color or in a low-saturation color are more likely to be misread by children than by adults.

Answer: A

9. A

“According to the passage” signals a Detail question. Research each answer choice to determine whether it matches an idea stated in the passage. Choice (A) is stated in paragraph 3, as shown by the example of gray-blue looking either gray-purple or gray-green when placed against a background of the other color. Answer choice (B) is a 180, or the opposite of what is true. An intermediate color placed next to a component primary color will look more like the other component primary color, thus contrasting more sharply. Choice (C) is incorrect. According to paragraph 2, children may interpret colors differently than do adults because children lack experience interpreting color under different lighting conditions, but this has nothing to do with intermediate or low-saturation colors.

Q10
The author mentions Josef Albers in paragraph 3 in order to

A argue that artists are aware of how humans perceive color and use this phenomenon to enhance the impact of their work

B illustrate the idea that color is fundamentally a subjective, aesthetic phenomenon rather than a scientific one

C demonstrate that a child would probably see a painting in the Homage to the Square series differently than would an adult

D explain that humans perceive the color of regular shapes, such as squares, differently than they perceive the color of less regular shapes, such as food on a plate or a letter of the alphabet

E provide an example that reinforces the importance of the concept that color is a subjective experience manufactured in part within the human mind

Answer: E

10. E

“In order to” signals a Logic question. It is asking why the author included Albers in the passage. Review your Passage Map. It should note that the author’s overall purpose is to explain why color is as much psychological construct as physical property. Then the Main Idea of paragraph 3, where Albers is mentioned, is that people see color differently depending on context. Thus, paragraph 3 is about a particular aspect of how color is a psychological construct. The author must mention Albers to support this idea, and answer choice (E) correctly states this.

The author is not making an argument about artists, so (A) is out. Choice (B) is incorrect because the author says in paragraph 1 that color does result in part from the physical properties of light and can properly be studied by physicists; the author does not mention Albers to say that color is solely a nonscientific phenomenon. (C) uses an idea from paragraph 2; this is not the point being made in paragraph 3. (D) states a comparison between different types of shapes that the passage never makes.

Text Completion10 questions

Try the following Text Completion questions using the Kaplan Method for Text Completion. If you’re up to the challenge, time yourself; on Test Day, you’ll want to spend between one and one and a half minutes on each question, depending on the number of blanks.

Q1
Many know him for his great scientific achievements, but Benjamin Franklin always believed that public service should (i) _________ science. Accordingly, his political contributions to the formation of the United States were (ii) _________.

Blank (i)

A

B

C

Blank (ii)

D

E

F

Answer: C, D

1. C, D

The detour road sign “but” is the key to the first sentence. It indicates that the next idea will contrast with the fact that Franklin is known for his scientific achievements. Since the next idea is Franklin’s belief about public service and science, predict that Franklin believed his work in public service to be more important than his work in science. This leads to (C) outweigh as the correct answer for the first blank. (A) impede means “slow the progress of,” which is extreme. Franklin may have valued public service more than science, but there is no context to support the idea that he believed that public service should actually slow the progress of science. (B) replicated, which means “duplicated” or “repeated,” expresses a relationship between public service and science that is not indicated by the sentence.

The second sentence begins with the straight-ahead road sign “Accordingly,” and therefore follows the train of logic from the first sentence. Franklin believed that public service was even more important than work in science, yet he achieved greatness in science. Thus, you can predict that his political contributions were also “significant.” (D) substantial, or “having great meaning or lasting effect,” is a perfect match for this prediction and is the correct answer for the second blank. (E) paltry means “inferior,” “trivial,” or even “despicable” and is the opposite of what is required here. (F) abhorrent, or “causing or deserving strong dislike or hatred,” does not fit in with the logic of the sentence.

Q2
The giant squid’s massive body, adapted for deep-sea life, breaks apart in the reduced pressures of shallower ocean depths, making the search for an intact specimen one of the most _________ quests in all of marine biology.

A meaningful

B elusive

C popular

D expensive

E profitable

Answer: B

2. B

The key word here is “intact,” which means that although specimens have been collected, they have rarely (if ever) been in one piece when recovered. You can fairly assume that recovering an intact specimen is difficult. When you look for a synonym for “difficult” in the answer choices, you recognize (B) elusive as your answer.

Q3
Despite the threat of sanctions from numerous other countries, the (i) _________ nation has repeatedly ordered its armies to (ii) _________ the borders of the disputed territory.

Blank (i)

A

B

C

Blank (ii)

D

E

F

Answer: C, D

3. C, D

The first part of the sentence describes measures—namely, sanctions—that have been taken to stop a nation’s actions in a disputed territory. The word “despite” at the beginning of the sentence acts as a detour road sign, indicating that the first half of the sentence contrasts with the second half. You can infer that the sanctions did not have the desired effect on the country and that it continued its undesirable activities.

The first blank describes the type of country that would continue to use force in a disputed territory despite the threat of sanctions. You can predict the adjective “aggressive,” which matches (C) truculent. (A) desultory, which means “lacking a plan,” and (B) parsimonious, which means “frugal,” do not make sense in this context.

The second blank indicates what the nation has done to incur the threat of sanctions. Since the issue involves the disputed territory’s borders, you can predict that the nation’s armies entered the disputed territory unlawfully, which matches (D) breach. (E) circumnavigate means to “go around rather than through” an area, while (F) circumvent means “to avoid altogether.”

Q4
For the people of ancient cultures who resided in desert climates, laws of hospitality dictated that (i) _________ must be welcomed as friends in the homes of their hosts; this code of conduct, typically grounded in religious belief, was considered (ii) _________ as it ensured basic survival for those who were traveling through the harsh, arid environment.

Blank (i)

A

B

C

Blank (ii)

D

E

F

Answer: B, E

4. B, E

The context clues that point to the meaning of the first blank can be found both before and after the semicolon. In the first half of the sentence, the references to “hospitality” and being “welcomed as friends” indicate that the missing word refers to a group of people. In the second half of the sentence, this same group is described as “those who were traveling.” You can, therefore, predict “travelers” for the missing word. This prediction matches (B) sojourners, which refers to people staying in a place for a short time. Choice (A) adversaries means “enemies,” but no context clues indicate that the travelers are hostile. Choice (C) occupants refers to people who live in a particular place, so it would be the opposite of “travelers.”

The second blank describes how ancient people viewed the law of hospitality. As the sentence states, this law was usually “grounded in religious belief” and “ensured basic survival” for travelers, so you can predict that this law was regarded as very important and even sacred. Eliminate (D) discretionary, which means “optional,” and (F) injudicious, which means “foolish.” Choice (E) sacrosanct, which means “sacred” or “inviolable,” is a strong match for the prediction and the correct answer.

Q5
Scientists have long (i)_________ that there are oceans of liquid water beneath the surface of Europa, one of Jupiter’s largest moons; if such (ii) _________ seas do in fact exist, then this satellite may prove to be the most likely location for extraterrestrial life in our solar system.

Blank (i)

A

B

C

Blank (ii)

D

E

F

Answer: A, F

5. A, F

The semicolon is a straight-ahead road sign that indicates that the second clause builds on the first. The first blank describes the scientists’ attitude in regard to oceans on Europa. The “if” in the second clause of the sentence indicates that their existence is not certain, so predict that the scientists “hypothesized” that such lakes exist. (A) postulated is a perfect match for this prediction and is correct. (B) refuted, or “declared untrue,” is too negative; the sentence does not imply that there is evidence that proves the lakes are not there. Similarly, there’s no reason to believe that the scientists have (C) overlooked these oceans.

The second blank describes the oceans themselves. All that is known about them from the clues in the sentence is that they are under the surface of one of Jupiter’s moons, so the right answer will relate to that idea. (F) subterranean means “underground” and fits perfectly. (D) embryonic may seem tempting because the oceans are said to be potential sources of life; however, the missing word refers to the oceans themselves, not whatever life may exist within them. When used in such a context, embryonic means “new” or “not yet fully developed,” which doesn’t fit the context. (E) pestilential, which means “harmful” or “virulent,” is too negative to fit the sentence.

Q6
Franklin Pierce was an expansionist American president who signed the treaty authorizing the Gadsden Purchase of land from Mexico, but his similar attempt to (i) _________ Cuba was unpopular, even within his own party. He further cemented the (ii) _________ of his political opponents with his pro-slavery policies, which ultimately led his party to (iii) _________ him and reject his bid for a second term.

Blank (i)

A

B

C

Blank (ii)

D

E

F

Blank (iii)

G

H

I

Answer: C, D, I

6. C, D, I

The first sentence mentions that Pierce was known for purchasing land, and the key word “similar” signals that the first blank should also mean something like “purchase” or “obtain.” (C) annex is a match for this idea and is the correct answer. (A) boycotting Cuba would mean cutting off relations with the country, which is not equivalent to the purchase of land from Mexico described in the first portion of the sentence, and (B) bolster would imply that Pierce was strengthening Cuba in some way, rather than acquiring it.

“Further” is the clue for the second blank, a continuation from the first sentence. The fact that Pierce’s attempt to grab land in Cuba was unpopular “even within his own party” suggests that his actions were even more unpopular among his political opponents. (D) enmity is a match. He certainly wouldn’t garner (E) approbation (meaning “praise”) or (F) largess (meaning “generosity”) from them.

The final blank is part of a very helpful construction on the GRE: when the sentence contains the blank, followed by “and” and another word, the other word is typically a great prediction for the blank. Here, it makes perfect sense to say that his party rejected Pierce and his bid for renomination. (I) repudiate is a synonym for reject and is correct. (G) galvanize would mean that he was energized by his unpopularity, which is not supported by the sentence. (H) abide would imply that his party was overlooking his problems and putting up with him, which is certainly different from their rejection of him.

Q7
The (i) _________ gave such an impassioned speech that even the most forlorn members of the crowd were briefly moved to (ii) _________.

Blank (i)

A

B

C

Blank (ii)

D

E

F

Answer: A, F

7. A, F

The key phrase for the first blank is “impassioned speech.” You can tell the correct answer for the first blank is someone who can speak expressively. (B) miscreants and (C) interlopers are not necessarily excellent speakers, but orators are. The correct choice is (A).

For the second blank, the key phrase is “even the most forlorn”; “even” works as a detour road sign, and “forlorn” is negative, so you want a positive term. Since (D) despair and (E) duress are not positive, the answer is (F) ebullience.

Q8
The (i) _________ nature of the monarch’s reign, which was characterized by frequent shows of force and what were thought by many to be egregious violations of individual rights, was not negated by the ruler’s (ii) _________ acts of generosity. In time, he might well be remembered as a (iii) _________ rather than a benevolent king.

Blank (i)

A

B

C

Blank (ii)

D

E

F

Blank (iii)

G

H

I

Answer: C, D, H

8. C, D, H

The first blank describes the nature of the monarch’s reign, which included “frequent shows of force” and “egregious violations of individual rights.” These negative phrases indicate the first blank should mean something like “severe or harsh use of power.” This prediction matches (C) draconian. Choice (A) inscrutable means “incomprehensible,” but no context clues indicate that the king’s actions were difficult to understand. (B) mercenary, which means “greedy,” is a negative quality but not one supported by the clues.

The second blank describes the king’s acts of generosity. Since the king’s reign was “characterized” by abuses of power, you can predict that it was unusual for the king to act in a generous manner. This prediction matches (D) intermittent, which means “sporadic” or “irregular.” (E) insipid is the opposite and means “commonplace” and “boring,” while (F) legitimate means “lawful.”

To complete the third blank, note the detour road sign “rather than.” The third missing word is thus set up to contrast with the phrase “benevolent king.” These clues indicate that the king’s legacy will reflect his reign, which was oppressive. You can predict that the king would be remembered as a tyrant, which matches (H) despot. (G) prolocutor, which means “spokesperson,” lacks the negative charge needed here. (I) figurehead is a term that describes a leader with no real power.

Q9
Although the young woman initially refused to enter the heated debate, claiming to be (i) _________ its outcome, her calm demeanor quickly turned (ii) _________ as she listened to one participant’s argument, revealing herself to be actually rather opinionated about the (iii) _________ issue.

Blank (i)

A

B

C

Blank (ii)

D

E

F

Blank (iii)

G

H

I

Answer: A, F, I

9. A, F, I

The detour road sign “Although” indicates that there are two parts of the sentence that contrast with one another. The first blank refers to what the young woman claimed about her attitude toward the debate’s outcome. This claim contrasts with the fact that she quickly reveals herself to be “opinionated.” A good prediction for the first blank would be the phrase “impartial to,” which matches (A) indifferent to. Choice (B) cognizant of means “aware of,” which does not match the prediction, and (C) partial to is the opposite of the prediction.

The second blank describes how the young woman’s demeanor changed from “calm” to something else as she listened to one of the debaters. The change indicated that the young woman was not impartial but actually “opinionated,” so you can predict that her demeanor became either noticeably positive or negative. Eliminate (D) phlegmatic, which means “calm,” and (E) conciliatory, which describes something that is meant to calm. Choice (F) cantankerous means “argumentative,” which fits the predicted meaning.

The third blank describes the type of issue that is being debated. Earlier in the sentence, the debate is described as “heated,” so you can predict that the issue or topic is “controversial.” This prediction matches (I) contentious. Eliminate (G) inscrutable, which means “mysterious,” and (H) trivial, which means “unimportant.”

Q10
The lawyer’s explosive, rude remarks convinced many that he was (i) _________ and of (ii) _________ character, suddenly making his future as a politician seem (iii) _________.

Blank (i)

A

B

C

Blank (ii)

D

E

F

Blank (iii)

G

H

I

Answer: C, F, H

10. C, F, H

For the first blank, the key phrase is “explosive, rude remarks.” Choice (A) indifferent suggests neutrality, but being explosive and rude is far from being neutral. The second choice, charming (B), does not make sense because someone who is “explosive” and “rude” is not seen as being charming. Choice (C) volatile means “unstable,” the same as “explosive.”

Since we know the lawyer is explosive, rude, and volatile, we can predict his character will be seen in negative ways. Because (D) courageous and (E) virtuous have positive connotations, choice (F) ignoble is the correct choice.

With the information that he is explosive, rude, volatile, and ignoble, predict what kind of “future as a politician” the lawyer will have. This is the key phrase for identifying the third blank. His character suggests he is not popular, so we can conclude his future is not (G) guaranteed. Choice (I) facetious means “flippant,” which does not make sense as a description of the politician’s future. Choice (H) precarious means “uncertain,” which fits the context of the sentence and is the correct choice.

Sentence Equivalence10 questions

Try the following Sentence Equivalence questions using the Kaplan Method for Sentence Equivalence. For each question, select two choices. If you’re up to the challenge, time yourself; on Test Day, you’ll want to spend only about one minute on each question.

Q1
While the abstract impressionist painter Lee Krasner may not be as well-known to the general public as her husband Jackson Pollock, her work is held in esteem by _________; indeed, she is one of the only female artists to have been featured in a retrospective at the Museum of Modern Art.

A detractors

B neophytes

C the cognoscenti

D connoisseurs

E malcontents

F the uninitiated

Answer: C, D

1. C, D

“While” sets up a contrast; Lee Krasner is not well known to the public, but one group of people, described by the missing word, respected her work. There’s a further clue after the semicolon: her work has been featured in a prominent museum. Thus, you can predict that the blank must mean something like “art experts.”

(C) the cognoscenti and (D) connoisseurs both mean “experts,” especially in connection to the arts, so they are the two correct answers. (B) neophytes and (F) the uninitiated are the opposite of what’s needed; both refer to novices or those who are untrained. (A) detractors (“those who disparage or criticize”) and (E) malcontents (“rebels” or “troublemakers”) are both too negative to fit the context of the sentence.

Q2
Although Don Quixote, published in 1605, is a _________ work of Western literature and an early example of the modern novel, it is not, as is sometimes claimed, the first novel; an even earlier contender for that designation is The Tale of Genji, an 11th-century work of Japanese literature.

A seminal

B derivative

C uninspired

D canonical

E serial

F antithetical

Answer: A, D

2. A, D

The missing word describes Don Quixote’s relation to Western literature. The fact that it is sometimes called the first novel implies that it holds a special place in Western literature, so you can predict that the blank will mean something like “important.”

(A) seminal, meaning “influential,” and (D) canonical, meaning “recognized” or “time-honored,” both match this prediction and are correct. (B) derivative would imply that Don Quixote is based on modern novels; this is the opposite of their actual relationship. (C) uninspired means “dull” or “uninteresting” and is again the opposite of what you need. (E) serial, or “arranged in a series,” doesn’t fit the context as there is no indication that Don Quixote was published as a series of chapters. Finally, (F) antithetical means “opposite.” Since the sentence indicates that Don Quixote is an early modern novel, this choice can be eliminated.

Q3
Although the lab assistant openly apologized for allowing the samples to spoil, her _________ did not appease the research head, and she was let go.

A insincerity

B frankness

C falsehoods

D candor

E inexperience

F hesitation

Answer: B, D

3. B, D

The clue in this sentence is the detour road sign “although,” which indicates contrast. Her “open” apology would be expected to “appease” her boss, but she was fired anyway; paraphrasing further, she did something good but suffered bad consequences. The word in the blank will express the good thing she did, so you can predict that the correct answers will be similar to “honesty.” Choices (A), (C), (E), and (F) are not synonyms for “honesty,” leaving choices (B) and (D). (B) frankness and (D) candor both carry the meaning of “forthright.” They’re your answers.

Q4
Human infants are born with motor capabilities that are barely _________ compared to those of other animal species that can survive on their own hours after birth; this is thought in part to be the result of a biological prioritization in humans of complex reasoning and language skills over motor development early in life.

A impetuous

B consummate

C inchoate

D sedentary

E incipient

F volatile

Answer: C, E

4. C, E

When taken as a whole, the sentence provides a reason why human infants might be born in a state that is less developed than that of other animal species. Indeed, “barely developed” would be a good prediction to complete the sentence. Both (C) inchoate and (E) incipient mean “just beginning to develop” and are the correct answers.

(A) impetuous means “impulsive,” which does not fit the context of the sentence at all. (B) consummate means “complete” or “perfect” and is the opposite of the meaning of the missing word. (D) sedentary means “not moving around” and would imply that human infants avoid moving because they are lazy. Finally, (F) volatile means “changeable” or “explosive” and can be eliminated because, while the infants are still developing, there is no indication that they are changing unpredictably.

Q5
The firefighter, desperate to save the children on the second floor of the fiery house, rushed into their bedroom; his colleagues, more wary of the _________ structure, remained outside.

A stalwart

B precarious

C stout

D irrefragable

E tottering

F fecund

Answer: B, E

5. B, E

There’s a somewhat subtle contrast clue here. One of the firefighters is rushing into a burning building to rescue children, while others are “more wary” of the structure. The blank must describe why the firefighters are concerned the building is dangerous; a good prediction would be “unsafe.” Evaluate the choices to find two matches for the prediction. (B) precarious and (E) tottering both mean “unstable,” so they’re the correct answers.

(A) stalwart and (C) stout are the opposite of the prediction; they both mean “sturdy.” (D) irrefragable means “impossible to refute,” while (F) fecund means “fertile.”

Q6
While the subject of numerous studies and self-help books, attaining happiness is often made more challenging by the fact that the concept of happiness itself is open to broad interpretation; psychologists are undecided whether happiness is merely _________ emotion that one can experience only momentarily, a fixed state of being that one achieves, or something in between.

A a coincidental

B an inherited

C a transient

D an incessant

E an intrinsic

F an ephemeral

Answer: C, F

6. C, F

The first part of the sentence explains that there are multiple definitions of “happiness,” while the second part highlights two of those definitions. The first definition, which contains the blank, describes a type of “emotion” that can only be experienced “momentarily.” You can predict that the blank means something like “temporary.”

Choices (C) a transient and (F) an ephemeral both mean “short-lived” and are therefore the correct answers. (A) a coincidental would refer to something that happens to occur at the same time as something else, so it is incorrect. (B) an inherited refers to a trait passed down from one’s parents, and (D) an incessant describes something that is unceasing, so both are closer in meaning to “fixed” than to “fleeting.” Similarly, (E) an intrinsic describes a trait that is part of one’s very nature, rather than a state that is temporary.

Q7
In honor of his lost homeland, the exiled poet wrote a moving _________ that described the beauty of his native country’s people, culture, and landscapes.

A elocution

B paean

C oratory

D panegyric

E diatribe

F harangue

Answer: B, D

7. B, D

Analyze the word charge of the context clues that relate to or describe the blank. In this sentence, the words “honor,” “moving,” and “beauty” have a positive word charge, indicating that the poet wrote a poem that praised his native country. Predict that the missing word will be similar in meaning to the word “tribute.” This prediction matches both (B) paean and (D) panegyric, each of which means “an expression of praise.”

The other answer choices may have been tempting as each is related to speech or the use of words. Choice (A) elocution is the manner in which one pronounces words, but it does not refer to the content of a text. Similarly, (C) oratory means “the art of public speaking,” but it does not refer to the text of a speech. Choices (E) diatribe and (F) harangue both mean “a critical and aggressive speech,” which is the opposite of the prediction.

Q8
While the ethics committee ultimately _________ the executive, the taint of scandal followed her long after the investigation into her private business dealings had concluded.

A discharged

B repudiated

C dismissed

D exculpated

E lionized

F exonerated

Answer: D, F

8. D, F

The detour road sign “While” indicates that the “taint of scandal” followed the executive in spite of the ethics committee’s actions. Since the second half of the sentence is set up to contrast with the first half, you can infer that the ethics committee did something positive for the executive. A strong prediction for the missing word would be “acquitted” or “cleared of wrongdoing.” This prediction matches (D) exculpated, which means “to have blame removed,” and (F) exonerated, which means “to have one’s innocence proven.”

Choices (A) discharged and (C) dismissed may have been tempting answer choices since they are synonyms. However, both words mean “to be relieved of duty,” which would be a negative act against the executive rather than the positive act indicated. Choice (B) repudiated means “rejected,” which also has a negative charge. (E) lionized is a positive word that means “celebrated,” but no clues in the sentence indicate that the executive deserved praise, and no other answer choice has a synonymous meaning.

Q9
No matter how hard Benjamin tried to coax the kitten off of the tree branch, the tiny creature remained _________, clinging to the bark with all its strength.

A intractable

B enervated

C obstinate

D diffident

E lackadaisical

F incapacitated

Answer: A, C

9. A, C

The phrase “no matter how hard” at the beginning of the sentence acts as a detour road sign, indicating that Benjamin’s efforts to get the kitten off the branch were unsuccessful. The word “remained” is a straight-ahead road sign that implies the kitten had been clinging to the branch for a while. You can predict that the missing word, which describes the kitten, means something like “stubborn.” This prediction matches (A) intractable and (C) obstinate, both of which mean “stubborn” or “immovable.”

Choices (B) enervated and (F) incapacitated might have been tempting since they are synonyms, but both mean “weakened” and, therefore, do not match the prediction. Choice (D) diffident, which means “shy,” might be a tempting word to use when describing a kitten, but the context clues do not support this meaning. Similarly, (E) lackadaisical, which means “lazy,” would contrast with the description of the kitten, which was hanging on “with all of its strength.”

Q10
Despite the legend that portrays him as unable to lie about cutting down a cherry tree, George Washington was hardly as _________ as the apocryphal story would make him seem. In fact, he was a shrewd general who used deception and misdirection efficaciously during the American Revolutionary War.

A hapless

B guileless

C duplicitous

D listless

E artless

F mendacious

Answer: B, E

10. B, E

Several clues point to the meaning of the blank. “Despite” and “hardly” indicate that the missing word contrasts with the expectation of George Washington’s character. The story about his being “unable to lie” is “apocryphal” or unlikely to be true, and the second sentence states that Washington was actually “shrewd,” using “deception and misdirection.” A great prediction for the blank would be “honest.” This would contrast with what the sentence claims to be Washington’s true “shrewd” nature.

(B) guileless and (E) artless both mean “honest and innocent” and are thus correct. Be careful with (C) duplicitous and (F) mendacious, which are synonyms but mean “deceptive,” which is the opposite of the meaning of the blank. (A) hapless, or “unlucky,” and (D) listless, or “lacking energy,” do not fit the meaning of the sentence.

Reading Comprehension5 questions

Now it’s your turn. In the passage and question set below, apply the Kaplan Method for Reading Comprehension, being cognizant of each step. If you’re up to the challenge, time yourself. If you set a timer, give yourself nine minutes. On Test Day, you’ll want to invest about one to one and a half minutes in reading each passage paragraph and one minute in answering each question.

Questions 1 and 2 are based on the passage below.

Recent advances in organ transplant methods have included a resurgence in interest in xenotransplantation—any procedure in which the transplant materials are taken from a non-human source—due to its potential to eliminate any issues related to scarcity in the availability of human organs for transplant. Scientific interest in using organic material from non-human sources to improve health, and even stave off death, is certainly not new. Anecdotal evidence of humans’ attempts to transplant limbs from animals in order to achieve superhuman feats, both successful and unsuccessful, has existed since ancient times and is deeply woven into Greek mythology. The early 19th century included more forays into the potential for non-human primate organs to be used for human transplantation, though from a scientific perspective, the record of success left much to be desired. Work in this field has not been without its critics, as animal welfare groups have spoken about the concerns of genetically modifying animals for the sole purpose of organ harvesting and the long-term consequences of ignoring the ethical implications for much of the xenotransplantation timeline. Whether society ultimately decides the potential benefits to humans in need of organ transplants outweigh the possible exploitation of thousands of animals remains to be seen.

Q1
In the passage above, what roles do the highlighted sentences serve?

A The first sentence is the main idea, and the second sentence restates the main idea.

B The first sentence makes the central argument of the passage, and the second sentence provides a supporting example.

C The first sentence is an example, and the second sentence is the author’s conclusion.

D The first sentence is an explanation, and the second sentence is an analysis of that explanation.

E The first sentence introduces the topic, and the second sentence presents a criticism.

Answer: E

1. E

This Logic question asks for the role of the two highlighted sentences. The first highlighted sentence introduces the concept of xenotransplantation, explaining what it is and providing historical context. In the second highlighted sentence, the author presents an opposing ethical view of the technology but never takes a definite side on the ethics of using it. Therefore, neither sentence is an argument of the author’s. Eliminate (B) and (C) because the first sentence is neither an argument nor an example.

Now determine whether the remaining choices correctly identify the role of the second highlighted sentence. This sentence describes the criticism leveled by the animal welfare groups. (E) is the correct answer. To get there by process of elimination, note that the second highlighted sentence does not restate anything, so (A) is incorrect. The second highlighted sentence also does not directly analyze anything stated in the first sentence, so (D) is likewise incorrect.

Q2
According to the passage, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT:

A Xenotransplantation mitigates many of the risks associated with human organ transplant.

B The scientific interest in xenotransplantation is not new.

C The record of success for primate organs transplanted into humans is not extensive.

D Greek mythology contains stories of combining human and animal physical characteristics.

E The ethical questions surrounding xenotransplantation are, as of yet, unanswered.

Answer: A

2. A

“According to the passage” signals a Detail question. The “EXCEPT” means the correct answer is a fact or idea that is not stated in the passage; the four incorrect answers present material that is in the passage. Forming a precise prediction of the correct answer is not possible, but by consulting the Passage Map and reviewing what the author says about xenotransplantation, it is possible to eliminate choices that reflect that information.

In reading the passage, you should have noted that xenotransplantation is an alternative intended to deal with the scarcity of human organs for transplant but not to reduce any actual risks involved in human organ transplant. (A) incorrectly identifies the problem that xenotransplantation is intended to solve, making it the correct answer to this EXCEPT question.

(B) is confirmed by the second sentence. (C) is given in the passage’s fourth sentence. (D) is present in the third sentence of the passage where it states “Anecdotal evidence . . . is deeply woven into Greek mythology.” (E) is stated in the final sentence.

Questions 3–5 are based on the passage below.

Although it is an imperfect model for describing a complex market, the theory of supply and demand is a reasonably accurate method of explaining, describing, and predicting how the quantity and price of goods fluctuate within a market. Economists define supply as the amount of a particular good that producers are willing to sell at a certain price. For example, a manufacturer might be willing to sell 7,000 sprockets if each one sells for $0.45 but would be willing to sell substantially more sprockets, perhaps 12,000, for a higher price of $0.82. Conversely, demand represents the quantity of a given item that consumers will purchase at a set price; in the most efficient market, all buyers pay the lowest price available, and all sellers charge the highest price they are able. The intersection of these occurrences is graphically represented in supply and demand curves that show the prices at which a product becomes too expensive or too readily available.

Q3
Which of the following best expresses the purpose of the passage?

A Explaining why buyers in a given market tend to seek the lowest price on available goods

B Offering a dissenting perspective on an obsolete economic model

C Persuading readers that the model of supply and demand is the best method for understanding market forces

D Providing an explanation of the two primary elements of an economic model and how they intersect

E Analyzing the fluctuation of supply and demand within a market

Answer: D

3. D

The passage as a whole discusses the basic elements of the model of supply and demand, defining the two terms and describing how they work. That’s choice (D). Choice (A) is too narrow, focusing on only one of the two forces described. Choice (B) is out of scope because there’s no mention of the model being obsolete; also, the author simply describes the model—she doesn’t dissent from its contentions. Although the passage asserts that the supply and demand model is “reasonably accurate,” the passage is primarily concerned with explaining the model, not with persuading readers that it is the “best” model. Therefore, you can rule out (C). Although the theory of supply and demand does allow for the analysis of market forces, (E), the passage itself provides only description, not analysis.

Consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.

Q4
If the producer of sprockets nearly doubles its prices as described in the passage, it follows that

A buyers in the market will be likely to purchase more of the sprockets being sold

B the price of sprockets will continue to increase

C buyers in the market will be likely to purchase fewer of the sprockets being sold

Answer: C

4. C

You are told that producers want to charge as much as possible and buyers want to pay as little as possible, so it makes sense that as prices rise, demand falls, choice (C). Choice (A) is the opposite of what the passage implies, which is that demand decreases as prices rise. There’s no evidence presented that this change in price will lead to further price increases, so you can rule out (B).

Q5
Select the sentence in the passage that illustrates an abstract concept presented by the author.

Answer: For example, a manufacturer might be willing to sell 7,000 sprockets if each one sells for $0.45 but would be willing to sell substantially more sprockets, perhaps 12,000, for a higher price of $0.82.

5. For example, a manufacturer might be willing to sell 7,000 sprockets if each one sells for $0.45 but would be willing to sell substantially more sprockets, perhaps 12,000, for a higher price of $0.82.

The abstract concepts addressed in the passage are those of supply and demand, and the only example that illustrates supply and demand occurs in sentence 3. Sentence 1 introduces the supply and demand model. Sentence 2 defines the term supply. Sentence 4 explains demand, and sentence 5 describes a graphical representation of the two forces.

Verbal Reasoning Mixed Set 120 questions

Directions: Each sentence below has one or more blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath the sentence are five words for one-blank questions and sets of three words for each blank for two- and three-blank questions. Choose the word or set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

Q1
The cockpit recording from the downed airliner was initially _________, but after careful analysis, experts were able to determine much of what the pilots had been shouting.

A disturbing

B streamlined

C coherent

D unintelligible

E esoteric

Answer: D

1. D

The word “but” signals a contrast from what came before it. The experts had to analyze the recording carefully to know what was being said, so at first the recording must have been “unclear” or “hard to make out.” (D) unintelligible perfectly describes a recorded conversation that is hard to make out, and is therefore the correct answer. Neither (A) disturbing nor (E) esoteric, which means “understood only by the specially initiated,” is a fitting answer. Although the recording may indeed have been disturbing or may have used specialized terminology only understood by a small number of listeners, neither of these words describe a situation in which experts would have trouble determining what was said in the recording. (B) streamlined means “aerodynamic,” and while the plane itself certainly would be streamlined, here the word does not apply to the cockpit recording. Finally, (C) coherent, or “understandable,” is the opposite of what is needed.

Q2
In spite of its popularity, The Merchant of Venice remains a (i) _________ play, with many critics (ii) _________ the extent of Shakespeare’s anti-Semitism.

Blank (i)

A

B

C

Blank (ii)

D

E

F

Answer: A, F

2. A, F

Begin by taking note of the phrase “in spite of,” which suggests that there will be an opposing idea in the sentence. The sentence describes the play as popular, so you can rule out choices (B) celebrated and (C) histrionic for the first blank because you are looking for a word contrasting with popularity. Based on the remaining option, (A) controversial, you are looking for a solution to the second blank that connotes uncertainty. Choices (D) assuaging and (E) augmenting are not possible, since neither means uncertainty. It is therefore answer choice (F) debating for the second blank. Read the sentence with the blanks filled in: if the play is controversial, it is not universally popular, and it makes sense that critics would debate some aspect of it.

Q3
Considered one of his most (i) _________ works, Mozart’s Requiem in D Minor has a certain (ii) _________ in Western culture because of its incomplete status at the time of his death, and many (iii) _________ stories have arisen surrounding it; unfortunately, the truth is lost to us.

Blank (i)

A

B

C

Blank (ii)

D

E

F

Blank (iii)

G

H

I

Answer: C, F, H

3. C, F, H

When there are so many missing parts, it is often best to begin with whatever complete clause you can find; in this case, the final one. This will allow you to fill in the third blank. You are told that we do not know the truth, which allows you to eliminate both choices (G) fraudulent and (I) verified, because both indicate that concrete knowledge exists on the matter. Answer choice (H) apocryphal is the only possible answer. If you know that many apocryphal stories arose surrounding the work, you can make headway into both of the other blanks.

For the first blank, assume that if many stories are made up about something, it is widely talked about—this eliminates choice (B) inconspicuous without a doubt, and between choices (A) ignominious and (C) famous, the choice is fairly straightforward. When you know something is much talked about because it is “incomplete,” you can suppose that a neutral synonym of “well known” is going to be much more likely than a negative synonym of “shameful.”

Finally, for the second blank, you can reject choices (D) obscurity and (E) indifference because you know the composition is well known, so answer choice (F) mystique is the only logical choice (and is supported by the mention of apocryphal stories). Let’s check our answer: “Considered one of his most famous works, Mozart’s Requiem in D Minor has a certain mystique in Western culture, and many apocryphal stories have arisen surrounding it; unfortunately, the truth is lost to us.” Everything fits in perfectly when you read back the sentence with the correct words filled in.

Q4
Although Thomas Paine was most (i) _________ his political pamphlets, he was in fact (ii) _________ writer on many different subjects.

Blank (i)

A

B

C

Blank (ii)

D

E

F

Answer: C, E

4. C, E

“Although,” a detour road sign, starts off the sentence, indicating that the ideas of the first and second clause will be opposites. While external knowledge might tell you that Paine was, in fact, a famous writer, it is important to remember that the correct answer will be derived from clues in the sentence alone. Also, the key words “political pamphlets” and “many different subjects” tell us what is being contrasted here: one subject (politics) versus many subjects. You might predict that Paine was well known for his political writing but was actually a good writer on many subjects.

For the first blank, (C) famous for is a perfect match for your prediction. Choices (A) inimical to and (B) condemned for are both negative and, therefore, incorrect. Then for the second blank, neither (D) abstruse nor (F) terrible indicates that Paine wrote well. However, a (E) prolific author writes a lot, and it can be presumed that writing comes easily to him. Therefore, (E) is the correct answer for the second blank.

Choices (D) abstruse and (F) terrible could work in a different sentence, but there is no choice for the first blank that will allow the resulting sentence to make sense. The answer will always be clear and definite—choices (C) famous for and (E) prolific create a sentence that makes sense without requiring any other knowledge or qualifications.

Q5
Because Rachel’s success had convinced her of her own (i) _________, she never (ii) _________ her errors.

Blank (i)

A

B

C

Blank (ii)

D

E

F

Answer: B, F

5. B, F

Rachel was convinced that whatever is in the first blank described her. Furthermore, it was Rachel’s success that led her to this belief. A good prediction for the first blank would therefore be “superiority” or “dominance.” (B) impeccability, or “flawlessness,” is a good match for the prediction and is the correct answer. (A) ineptitude, or “incompetence,” can be eliminated quickly because it is the opposite of what Rachel’s success would convince her of. (C) resilience, or “an ability to recover from or adjust easily to misfortune or change,” might have been tempting because one can imagine Rachel having to recover from misfortunes along the way to success. However, the sentence doesn’t indicate that Rachel actually dealt with misfortunes, and “resilience” doesn’t fit in with the rest of the sentence.

“Because” shows a relationship of cause and effect and indicates that the second blank will be something Rachel never did due to her belief in her own impeccability. A good prediction would be that she never “realized,” “admitted,” or “acknowledged” her errors. (F) discerned, which means “detected” or “recognized,” is a good match and is correct. (D) publicized, which means “brought to the attention of the public,” can be eliminated because there is no reason to think that Rachel’s desire to avoid making her errors public would be different from anyone else’s. (E) overlooked is the opposite of what is needed here.

Q6
St. Elmo’s fire is a weather phenomenon that, (i) _________ it has been documented since ancient times, was not (ii) _________ until recently.

Blank (i)

A

B

C

Blank (ii)

D

E

F

Answer: C, F

6. C, F

Based on the choices, you know that there will be a conjunction between the clauses of the first and second blanks. The contrast of “ancient times” and “recently” tells you to predict a word for the first blank that suggests contrast, which eliminates choices (A) because and (B) since, leaving you with answer choice (C) although.

You know St. Elmo’s fire has been documented for a long time, so discount choice (E) reported for the second blank. Choice (D) may be tempting, because incinerated is related to fire, but it does not make sense in this sentence. That leaves (F) understood, which does make sense as a contrast with the phenomenon’s having been documented.

Questions 7–10 are based on the passage below.

It has been commonly accepted for some time now that certain scenes in Shakespeare’s Macbeth are interpolations from the writing of another author; act III, scene 5, and parts of act IV, scene 1, have been determined to be the writing of one of his contemporaries, Thomas Middleton. This can be regarded as both illuminating and problematic, depending upon how the play is being studied. It allows us to infer a great deal about the conventions and practices of writing for the stage at the time. For example, playwriting may have been more collaborative than previously thought, or perhaps Elizabethan notions of plagiarism were different from ours. While historically significant, this does complicate our interpretation of the characters in the play. It is more difficult to assess authorial intention with regard to a character’s motives if the text has been redacted by multiple authors.

Consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.

Q7
According to the passage, it is correct to say that:

A The author feels that Shakespeare is guilty of plagiarism.

B The interpolations found in plays such as Macbeth make the assessment of authorial intention more straightforward.

C Our current understanding of plagiarism may have arisen after Shakespeare’s time.

Answer: C

7. C

This type of question gives you three statements and asks you to select which ones are true. Break it down statement by statement. Statement (A) is untrue because the term “plagiarism” is used in the passage in the phrase “perhaps Elizabethan notions of plagiarism were different from ours”—which indicates that one cannot be certain of what might have constituted plagiarism at the time. Statement (B) is a 180: the passage does refer to the assessment of authorial intention if the text has been redacted by several authors, but the passage states the exact opposite of statement (B). Statement (C) is correct because you are told that our current notion of plagiarism might be different from the notion of plagiarism in Shakespeare’s time.

Consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.

Q8
Which of the following could aid in the further study of the interpolations discussed in the above passage?

A An investigation into the existence and prevalence of collaborative writing partnerships during Shakespeare’s time

B An examination of the themes and techniques of other writers contemporary with Shakespeare

C A search through legal documents of Shakespeare’s time for references to plagiarism or intellectual property rights

Answer: A, B, C

8. A, B, C

This Inference question asks you to consider possibilities based on what is in the text but not necessarily stated within it. (A) The passage raises the question of how collaborative writing for the stage may have been during Shakespeare’s time. Conducting an investigation into the existence of collaborative writing partnerships would be a good way to determine an answer for this question. (B) Familiarizing yourself with the style of other writers who might have helped write or had their work used in the writing of Shakespeare’s plays would help in the determination of the actual authorship of passages in Macbeth (and other plays), as well as provide insight into authorial intention. Finally, (C) is an interesting alternative to a strictly literary study and would help to solve the question posed in the text of what constituted plagiarism in the Elizabethan era. All three are good choices for further study.

Consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.

Q9
Which CANNOT be inferred from the passage?

A The example of interpolation discussed in the passage would be illegal today.

B Authors and playwrights in Shakespeare’s time might have recruited assistance when composing their works.

C Shakespeare used Middleton’s writing without his consent.

Answer: A, C

9. A, C

This is an Inference EXCEPT question: you must select the answers you cannot infer from the passage. (A), that this example of interpolation would be illegal today, is impossible to tell as the passage does not address issues of legality and we do not even know whether Middleton was a willing collaborator. (B) is suggested within the passage in the supposition that writing such as Macbeth might have, in fact, been collaborative—this allows you to eliminate choice (B). (C) you know to be also a correct response for the same reason you specified for (A)—you do not know precisely Middleton’s role in the composition. Answer choices (A) and (C) are both correct.

Q10
In the passage, the two highlighted statements play which of the following roles?

A The first explains a concept, and the second presents an example of that concept.

B The first presents an example of the main subject of the passage, and the second is a conclusion based on that example.

C The first states the conclusion of the argument as a whole, and the second provides support for that conclusion.

D The first provides evidence for a conclusion that the passage as a whole opposes, and the second presents the objection to that conclusion.

E The first states the primary conclusion of the passage, and the second states the secondary conclusion.

Answer: B

10. B

In this question, you are asked to determine the rhetorical roles of the two highlighted statements. The first highlighted statement is used as an example of the interpolations that the first clause in the sentence mentions. The highlighted portion states that parts of Shakespeare’s work were in fact written by his peer Middleton. So the first highlighted portion appears to be an example.

The second highlighted statement presents an opinion regarding the impact of interpolations on literary analysis. According to this statement, because others wrote certain parts of Shakespeare’s work, it is more difficult to determine a character’s motives. Your prediction should be that the first statement is an example and the second is an opinion or conclusion (remember that in arguments, the words “opinion” and “conclusion” will often be used interchangeably). Answer choice (B) matches this prediction perfectly.

The other choices miss the mark completely. For instance, choice (A) incorrectly states that the second highlighted portion is the example. Similarly, choice (C) indicates that the first statement is the opinion and the second is the evidence, the exact opposite of our prediction. (D) states that the passage opposes an argument, but there is no conflict addressed in the passage. Finally, choice (E) identifies both statements as conclusions, which is not correct.

Directions: For the following questions, select the two answer choices that, when inserted into the sentence, fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole and yield complete sentences that are similar in meaning.

Q11
Known to all as having a silver tongue, the orator easily distracts audiences from the meaning of his words with his _________ speech.

A mellifluous

B concise

C stumbling

D laconic

E euphonic

F strident

Answer: A, E

11. A, E

The key here is that the sentence tells us that his “silver tongue” makes it hard to concentrate on the meaning of his words. To have a silver tongue is to be noted for the pleasantness of one’s speech, so you are looking for a pair of answers that mean “pleasing.” (C) stumbling, (D) laconic, and (F) strident all are unrelated to the pleasantness of his tone, and while (B) concise language may be an attribute of a skilled orator, it will not create a similar sentence to one created by either of the other two possible answers. (A) mellifluous and (E) euphonic both mean “to be sweet or pleasing,” and both are often used in reference to speech.

Q12
While medical experts have long touted the importance of sleep to optimal health, many adults will forgo the _________ effects of taking a nap for fear of seeming idle.

A soporific

B detrimental

C beneficial

D perceptible

E deleterious

F salubrious

Answer: C, F

12. C, F

The beginning of this sentence focuses on how important sleep is to good health. You can therefore predict that taking a nap produces positive effects on health. (A) soporific means “to make sleepy,” which is not a logical effect of napping. (B) detrimental and (E) deleterious both mean “harmful,” which is the opposite of the predicted meaning “positive.” (D) perceptible, meaning “noticeable,” might make sense in the context, but the word charge is not positive enough to match the prediction, and there is no second choice that would give the sentence a similar meaning. (C) beneficial, meaning “favorable,” and (F) salubrious, meaning “health-giving,” both correctly convey the idea that the effects of napping are positive and healthy and are the right answers.

Q13
The celebrated playwright’s most recent work, intended to be a serious exploration of the meaning of existence, was roundly _________ by theatergoers, who found the lofty themes and abstruse language to be overwrought and almost comical.

A lampooned

B extolled

C lionized

D disregarded

E contemplated

F ridiculed

Answer: A, F

13. A, F

The playwright in this sentence is described as “celebrated,” which may initially imply a generally favorable response to his most recent play. Although there is no contrast word in the sentence, the language used to describe the audiences’ opinion gives the opposite impression. The words “lofty,” “abstruse,” and “overwrought” indicate that the play was too self-important and complicated, to the point of being “almost comical.” You can predict that theatergoers responded negatively to the performance. (A) lampooned and (F) ridiculed both mean “mocked” or “made fun of” and are correct. (B) extolled and (C) lionized both mean “praised” and are the opposite of what you need. (D) disregarded means “ignored” and is not supported by the context; the theatergoers clearly saw the play and shared their opinions about it. (E) contemplated means “considered,” which may be true but does not have a negative enough connotation to fit the context clues.

Q14
Word painting is a musical technique in which the progression of the notes _________ the meaning of the lyrics; a famous example of this can be found in Handel’s Messiah, in which the notes rise with the mention of “mountains” and fall with the mention of “low.”

A affects

B mimics

C contrasts

D reflects

E opposes

F renounces

Answer: B, D

14. B, D

While you might have no background in musical techniques, you never need information from outside the sentence to deduce the correct answer. The example given tells you that the progression of notes in the music seems to imitate the words of the lyrics. So, you need a word that gives the meaning “the progression of the notes mirrors the meaning of the lyrics.” Choices (C) contrasts, (E) opposes, and (F) renounces are antonyms of the desired answer. While (A) affects could work in the sentence, it lacks a synonym and does not properly refer to the desired meaning of “mirrors.” Answer choices (B) mimics and (D) reflects do, however, and thus you know that they are your desired choices.

Directions: Each passage in this group is followed by questions based on its content. After reading a passage, choose the best answer to each question. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.

Questions 15 and 16 are based on the passage below.

In the decades leading up to the 1970s, the primarily French-speaking Canadian province of Québec saw its proportion of native French speakers diminish from year to year. The attrition of French was attributed to the preeminence of English in the workplace, particularly in affluent, “white-collar” jobs. The French-speaking majority was economically marginalized within its own province, as it was left with the choice of either working in lower-paying jobs or teaching its children English as a first language. The latter option would further erase Québec’s cultural autonomy and singularity within a country that primarily spoke English. Facing the risk of linguistic extinction, the province passed Loi 101 (Law 101): The Charter of the French Language. It established French as the only official language of the province, established the primacy of French in the workplace, and led to more economic equity. Since its passage in 1977, the percentage of people in Québec who speak French as a first language has begun to rise.

Q15
Which of the following is suggested in the passage as a reason for the decline of French in Québec?

A The disparity of economic opportunities available to French and English speakers

B An influx of English-speaking immigrants

C Efforts of French Canadians to further integrate themselves with Canadian culture

D The emigration of French Canadians

E The outlawing of French in the other provinces

Answer: A

15. A

You are asked why the use of the French language declined in Québec. Researching the passage, you see this mentioned in the first few lines. Specifically, you are told that the “preeminence” of the English language in the best jobs forced people to switch. This indicates that in order to take advantage of the best economic opportunities, one had to speak English. The passage suggests that French became an economically unviable language, stating that “the French-speaking majority was economically marginalized.” Thus, the two groups had access to significantly different economic and professional opportunities. This is reflected in answer choice (A).

Choices (B) and (D) are out of scope, as immigrant and emigrant populations are not mentioned. Furthermore, choice (E) is also beyond the scope of the passage, which does not mention the outlawing of French in other provinces. Finally, choice (C) is a 180, as the passage states the French sought to maintain their autonomy, not integrate themselves into other cultures.

Q16
According to the passage, Loi 101 was significant in that it

A was a final, unsuccessful attempt at enforcing the usage of French in Québec

B curtailed the economic supremacy of English

C restricted the teaching of English in schools

D highlighted the distinctiveness of the cultural identity of Québec from that of the rest of Canada

E provided for bilingual education

Answer: B

16. B

This question asks you to summarize the significance of the law mentioned in the latter part of the passage. Based on the final sentence of the passage (which mentions the rise in French as the primary language), (A) is untrue—it was not an unsuccessful attempt. (B) is true because the passage specifies that the law “established the primacy of French in the workplace.” No mention is made of language in schools, so you can dismiss options (C) and (E). Finally, while the cultural identity of Québec is mentioned in the passage, the only results of Loi 101 specified are the economic equity of the languages and the rise in the usage of French, so you can also reject (D) as a possible answer. Answer choice (B) is the only option that is based on the information in the passage.

Questions 17–19 are based on the paragraph below.

The advent of online education in the first decade of the 21st century was the result of and a response to a number of factors that were both internal and external to the field of higher education. Traditional tertiary institutions, especially those that were privately endowed, raised tuition rates far in excess of the rate of inflation. This, in concert with a larger demand for postsecondary education for working adults, helped facilitate the introduction of online learning. However, it should be acknowledged that the relative simplicity of using the Internet as a platform, as well as its cost-effectiveness, was seized upon by entrepreneurs in the private sector. Online education is largely in the hands of for-profit companies. The question now becomes whether the democratization of higher education is worth the price of removing it from nonprofit, research-based universities.

Q17
The passage is concerned primarily with

A the advent of online education

B adult-oriented educational systems

C the usefulness of the Internet in postsecondary education

D economic and technological factors that influenced the development and current state of online education

E the advantages and disadvantages of online education

Answer: D

17. D

You must be careful here. Just because (A) is a direct quotation of the opening of the passage does not make it the correct answer, and, indeed, the passage moves away from the origins of online education and into other facets of its expansion. (B) is not discussed in the passage, even though the author makes note that the demand for adult-oriented education was one of the contributing factors to the rise of online learning. Neither (C) nor (E) properly describes the entire scope of the passage. Only answer choice (D) can be said to encompass the entirety of the passage.

Q18
The author’s use of the term “seized upon” evokes an image of _________ on the part of the entrepreneurs.

A accidental realization

B opportunistic tactics

C violent appropriation

D collusive behavior

E market manipulation

Answer: B

18. B

Here you are called to define a phrase based on its context. What you are looking for is an answer that accurately reflects what is described in the passage: the entrepreneurs saw an untapped potential for profit in the unanswered demand for online learning and “seized upon” it. (A) is a poor choice because it implies that their success in capitalizing on the demand was unintentional. (B) is a much better solution because it evokes the image of the entrepreneurs taking the opportunity available. (C) is highly unlikely because no mention of violence is made in the passage (and, indeed, in reference to online education this would be an unlikely choice to begin with). (D) can be eliminated as there is no mention of collusion on the part of for-profit education companies; similarly, (E) can be eliminated because those companies are never said to have manipulated the market in order to gain control of the online education market. Answer choice (B) is the only possible answer.

Q19
The highlighted section refers to

A the cost of online education

B the popularity of online courses

C making education available to a wider range of students

D the role of voting in class selection

E whether or not a democratic society should have online education

Answer: C

19. C

This type of question asks you to define the highlighted phrase based on the context. The key word here is “democratization.” While the cost-effectiveness of online education is mentioned earlier in the passage, it is unlikely that (A) the cost of online education is the correct answer because the sense of the final sentence is that it remains to be seen whether making higher education more widely available through online institutions “is worth the price of removing it from nonprofit, research-based universities.” Based on this, you can also discount (B) the popularity of online courses and (D) the role of voting in class selection because while they may be linked conceptually to the term “democracy,” the context tells us this is not what the phrase here concerns. Answer choice (C) making education available to a wider range of students matches our prediction and properly clarifies the usage of the highlighted phrase in the passage. You can discount (E) because it goes well beyond the scope of the passage.

Question 20 is based on the passage below.

Thermodynamics is concerned with changes in the properties of matter when we alter the external conditions. An example of this is a gas being compressed by the motion of a piston. The final outcome depends on how the change is made—if the piston is moved in slowly, we say that the compression is “reversible.” This means that if we pull the piston back out, we retrace the same sequence of properties but in the reverse order; hence, the temperature of the gas will be the same when the piston has been pulled out as it was before the piston was pushed in. However, if the piston is moved in and out quickly, then the initial state (and temperature) will not be recovered—the gas will always be hotter than it was at the beginning. This is a manifestation, although not a statement, of the second law of thermodynamics. It also makes a difference whether there is a transfer of heat between the cylinder of gas and the external surroundings. If the cylinder is insulated, then the gas will heat on compression and cool on expansion (refrigeration uses this principle). On the other hand, if the cylinder can exchange heat with the surroundings, it will remain at the same temperature if the compression is slow enough.

Q20
This passage is primarily concerned with

A describing the motion of a piston to demonstrate the laws of thermodynamics

B explaining the conservation of heat during the motion of a piston

C demonstrating how the second law of thermodynamics applies to pistons

D explaining how thermodynamics function

E discussing reversible compression

Answer: A

20. A

In a Global question such as this one, the correct answer will reflect the scope and purpose you noted while reading the passage. While the broad topic of the passage is thermodynamics, the bulk of the passage describes the motion of a piston and how the effects of that motion demonstrate the laws of thermodynamics. (A) expresses this idea exactly. (D) may be tempting since “thermodynamics” is the first word of the passage, but (D) is too broad and leaves out any mention of the piston, which plays a key role in the passage as a whole. Choices (B), (C), and (E) refer to specific subjects mentioned in the passage but do not refer to the passage as a whole.

Verbal Reasoning Mixed Set 220 questions

Directions: Each sentence below has one or more blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath the sentence are five words for one-blank questions and sets of three words for each blank for two- and three-blank questions. Choose the word or set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

Q1
Mary’s former classmates were taken aback by her _________ behavior at the reunion for, during her school years, she was frequently reprimanded for creating disturbances with her exuberant outbursts and playful antics.

A gregarious

B discourteous

C obsequious

D reticent

E scurrilous

Answer: D

1. D

The phrase “taken aback” indicates that Mary’s former classmates were surprised by how much her behavior had changed since her school years. Since Mary was “exuberant” and prone to “playful antics,” you can determine that she was outgoing as a child. The missing word describes how Mary behaves now, which you can expect to be the opposite of outgoing. A strong prediction would be “shy” or “quiet.” You can thus quickly rule out (A) gregarious, which means “sociable.” (B) discourteous, which means “impolite,” and (E) scurrilous, which means “offensive” or “insulting,” can both be eliminated as no clues indicate that Mary is now rude. (C) obsequious means “fawning” or “servile,” which is unsupported by the context. (D) reticent, meaning “shy” or “introverted,” provides the correct meaning to complete the sentence.

Q2
Hindsight often has the effect of changing the collective perception of certain historical events. Some incidents seem to be of exceptional importance when they first occur, but they ultimately prove to have few (i) _________ for future generations. Others appear to be rather (ii) _________ to contemporaries, and it is only later that their true significance is understood.

Blank (i)

A

B

C

Blank (ii)

D

E

F

Answer: C, E

2. C, E

The first sentence describes how the perception of certain events’ historical importance may change over time. The second sentence discusses how some events first seem very important, while the word “but” indicates that these events may ultimately prove to be unimportant. You can predict that an unimportant event will have few consequences for future generations. (C) repercussions matches this prediction and is correct. (A) vagaries, which refers to “sudden or unexpected changes,” is not supported by the meaning of the sentence. (B) misapprehensions means “misunderstandings” and is also unsuitable for the context.

The word “others” at the beginning of the third sentence indicates that an opposite situation will be described in this sentence. Since the previous sentence discussed how some events seem important when they occur, you can predict that this sentence will describe how other events at first seem unimportant. (E) picayune, which means “trivial,” is a perfect match for this prediction and is correct. (D) monumental, which means “of great importance,” is the opposite of the prediction. (F) outlandish, meaning “bizarre,” is incorrect because it is not supported by the context.

Q3
Who among us isn’t guilty of mistaking a polite rhetorical question such as a (i) _________ “How are you?” for a genuine inquiry and responding with (ii) _________ description of the minutiae of our day?

Blank (i)

A

B

C

Blank (ii)

D

E

F

Answer: B, D

3. B, D

The first half of the sentence provides a number of clues for the first blank, stating that “How are you?” in this context is a “polite rhetorical question” and that it would be a mistake to think of it as a “genuine inquiry.” (B) perfunctory, meaning “casual” or “offhand,” is an appropriate description of a question that is superficial or simply going through the motions. This is the correct answer for the first blank. (A) can be ruled out since there is no indication in the sentence that the person asking the question is supercilious or “arrogant.” (C) describes the opposite of the situation described in the sentence as a gregarious or “outgoing” person might actually care about the answer to her question.

Given the casual nature of the question, a response that describes the “minutiae of our day” would be unnecessarily lengthy. (D) prolix is a perfect match and is correct. (E) pithy is incorrect because it means “short,” and a short response would actually be appropriate for the polite rhetorical question. (F) abstruse, or “difficult to understand,” misses the clues in the sentence.

Q4
Though she was typically able to (i) _________ the energy required to deal with such an unruly group of students, the exhausted vice principal found herself unable to (ii) _________ the (iii) _________ kindergartners.

Blank (i)

A

B

C

Blank (ii)

D

E

F

Blank (iii)

G

H

I

Answer: C, D, I

4. C, D, I

There is enough context to make a strong prediction for the first blank; it would seem that the vice principal would want to “gather” the necessary energy to deal with the “unruly” students. (C) marshal in this context means “summon,” so it is a good fit for the prediction and is correct. (A) incite means to “provoke” or “urge someone on,” which does not fit the context. (B) parry, meaning “ward off” or “avoid,” is the opposite of the intention of the sentence.

Because they are close together and are directly related to one another, the remaining two blanks can be considered at the same time. Consider the clue from the first half of the sentence, that this is an “unruly group of students.” The vice principal’s task, then, is to calm this uncontrollable, rowdy group. (D) pacify is a good synonym for calm, and (I) restive means hyperactive or difficult to control, even though it looks like it means “resting.” Likewise, (H) noisome might look tempting at a glance, but noisome means “foul or smelly,” not noisy.

If the students were just waking up from a nap and were slow to get moving, (F) rouse might be appropriate; however, here, this choice is the opposite of the described scenario. (G) intransigent would imply that the students were inflexible or stubborn in sticking to an idea, which does not convey the idea that the students are “unruly.”

Q5
(i) _________ mushrooms are popular in many cuisines, it is (ii) _________ to eat those found in the wild, as many frequently found mushrooms resemble edible mushrooms but are, in fact, (iii) _________.

Blank (i)

A

B

C

Blank (ii)

D

E

F

Blank (iii)

G

H

I

Answer: B, D, G

5. B, D, G

Three-blank sentences take a little longer to work out. When looking at the choices for the first blank, you can see that it is a conjunction, but you cannot be sure of which until you solve the rest of the sentence. The best place to begin in this sentence is actually at the end—you are given a very useful hint with the detour road sign “but,” telling you that blank (iii) will be an antonym to “edible.” While looking through the choices, you can see that the correct answer is answer choice (G) poisonous. While you might not want to eat something (H) bland, this is not a direct antonym to “edible.” Choice (I) toothsome means “palatable” or “desirable” and is the opposite of what the blank needs.

From here, work backward to the second blank. Since you now know that you are talking about eating possibly poisonous mushrooms, you can predict that blank (ii) will say that it is “unwise” to do so. Choice (E) cheaper is irrelevant to the context (and no mention of money is made elsewhere), and choice (F) ingenuous, meaning “innocent” or “sincere,” is unrelated to the sentence. Answer choice (D) imprudent is a synonym of “unwise” and is therefore the answer you need.

Return to the first blank in the sentence. You are told that mushrooms are popular in many cuisines, and you are looking for an answer that connects the two ideas. Predict roughly “although mushrooms are popular in many cuisines, it is imprudent . . .”; what you are looking for is a conjunction marking this contradicting idea. Answer choice (B) While is the correct choice. For sentences with three blanks, especially, it is important to reread the sentence with all the blanks filled in: “While mushrooms are popular in many cuisines, it is imprudent to eat those found in the wild, as many frequently found mushrooms resemble edible mushrooms but are, in fact, poisonous.” The sentence makes perfect sense.

Q6
Though the poet’s work was praised highly by critics, sales of his anthologies were (i) _________; it is possible the poor sales were due to his language being too (ii) _________ to be readily understood.

Blank (i)

A

B

C

Blank (ii)

D

E

F

Answer: A, F

6. A, F

Within the first half of the sentence, you are given the detour road sign “though” to contrast the high praise with the sales. Thus, choices (B) robust and (C) singular cannot be correct because they are too positive. Answer choice (A) scanty, on the other hand, contrasts appropriately with high praise, and it fits perfectly with “poor sales” later in the sentence.

The second half of the sentence offers a possible explanation for why the sales were poor, suggesting that it was too hard to understand the poet’s language, which immediately removes choice (D) lucid. Choice (E) prosaic might trip you up; however, answer choice (F) abstruse is clearly the better choice for the second blank—it is an adjective indicating that the prose is difficult to understand.

Question 7 is based on the passage below.

Computer programs exist that attempt to generate random numbers, but no such program can fully replicate a truly random selection. Computer programs are, by definition, a set of instructions that use an input to generate an output. If both the input and the algorithm are known, the result is fully predictable. Even the best random number generation programs can only be called pseudo-random because the input itself is generated by the program. As a result, a pattern will emerge within the results, even if the program is sophisticated enough to make the pattern very complicated, and that pattern can be used to predict future results. True random number generation often depends on measurement of an unpredictable physical phenomenon, such as weather patterns or atmospheric radiation, and using that measurement as an input to generate a result.

Q7
The passage provides information sufficient to infer each of the following statements EXCEPT:

A The outputs of random number generators that provide their own input could, with enough information about past results, eventually be predicted.

B If a person knew both the algorithm that a corporation used to generate a truly random number and the atmospheric measurements that served as the input, the person would be able to generate the same output obtained by the corporation.

C With a sufficiently large table of the results of a pseudo-random number generator over time, it would be possible to derive the input and algorithm used to generate those results.

D The integrity of applications for which the unpredictability of the result is vital, such as lotteries or data encryption, can be best preserved by using a method of random number generation that is truly random.

E It is impossible to know the exact amount of atmospheric radiation emitted at a particular location and time until after a measurement is taken.

Answer: C

7. C

The four wrong answers to this Inference EXCEPT question are statements that must be true according to the information provided by the passage. The correct answer, therefore, is something that cannot be deduced using the information provided. This is (C). While the passage does say that knowing the input and algorithm allows one to fully determine the results of a random number generator, and that pseudo-random programs produce results that have patterns that are ultimately predictable, this only means that it is possible to determine future results. It does not necessarily mean that it is possible to reverse-engineer the initial input and algorithm from the results.

(A) is supported by combining the given definition of pseudo-randomness (“the input itself is generated by the program”) and the idea that pseudo-randomness produces patterns that are predictable. Likewise, (D) must be true, since a pseudo-random number generator is predictable, whereas a truly random program is not.

The passage describes atmospheric radiation as “unpredictable,” making it a good source for true randomness, so (E) is true and can be eliminated. On the other hand, if someone obtained the measurements after they were taken and knew the algorithm being used to generate the random number, they would be able to generate the same result obtained by the original program since true-random number generation depends on the input being unpredictable, not the algorithm. As a result, (B) is also true.

Questions 8–10 are based on the passage below.

Toward the end of the 19th century, many scientists thought that all the great scientific discoveries had already been made and that there was not much left to do beyond some “tidying up.” Max Planck, born in 1858, turned this notion upside down with his study of black-body radiation. Even in a vacuum, a hot body will tend to come to thermal equilibrium with a colder body by radiative heat transfer. This is the principle by which we derive energy from the sun. However, measurement of black-body radiation frequencies across a range of temperatures resulted in a parabolic curve, which theory in Planck’s time could not explain. After many years of work devoted to this problem, Planck succeeded in quantitatively explaining the experimental data; his key insight was that energy comes in small, discrete packets, called quanta. His theory was the birth of what is called quantum mechanics, the revolutionary theory of matter that is fundamental to the modern understanding of physics, chemistry, and molecular biology.

Q8
Select the sentence that best describes the importance of Max Planck’s work to modern science, as described in the passage.

Answer: His theory was the birth of what is called . . .

8. His theory was the birth of what is called . . .

This sentence provides a summary of the importance of his work.

Q9
Which of the following would best paraphrase the opening sentence?

A By the late 1800s, much of the scientific community felt it had completed the majority of its work and minor revisions were its only remaining task.

B By 1900, few scientists were still making significant discoveries, and most projects were revising current theories.

C At the end of the 19th century, scientists were concerned that they had run out of discoveries to make and could only perfect already proven theories.

D By 1900, the scientific community had declared that it had come to understand the natural laws of the universe.

E At the end of the 19th century, scientists ceased trying to formulate new theories.

Answer: A

9. A

While reading the paragraph, paraphrase the text in your head to make sure you understand it. The key aspect of this sentence is that, at the time, there were a number of scientists who believed that the major discoveries had been made and the remaining scientific work was to tweak and perfect current theories. With that in mind, you can look through the options to see which best fits this idea. Answer choice (A) is an excellent paraphrase of the sentence. (B) is problematic because there is a fundamental difference between scientists believing all the great discoveries to have been made and scientists making few new significant discoveries. You can also reject choices (C), (D), and (E) because their description of “scientists” and the “scientific community” as a whole is too broad. The original sentence only states “many scientists,” suggesting that there were dissenters, such as Planck.

Q10
Which of the following best describes the relationship between the highlighted portions of the passage?

A Topic and scope

B Theory and debunking

C Problem and solution

D Hypothesis and analysis

E Thesis and synthesis

Answer: C

10. C

What you must keep in mind here is that you are asked for the relationship between the two highlighted phrases, not their relationship to the passage as a whole. A good way to attack this sort of question is to paraphrase each of the phrases and identify what it is saying on its own. The first phrase states an issue: that the current theory could not explain the parabolic curve scientists observed. The second phrase tells us of Planck’s breakthrough discovery of quanta. Thus, you can predict that the answer will tell us the relationship is between the limitations of the current theory and Planck’s solution. (A) is a trap because it uses words you frequently see elsewhere and are admonished to remember when considering any Reading Comprehension passage. However, topic and scope are irrelevant to this question, and choice (A) can be dismissed. (B) may be tempting because the first highlighted portion does contain the word “theory. However, based on the wording of the first phrase, it is clear that the issue with the current theory was recognized by the scientific community; thus, Planck’s solution was not a challenge to a widely accepted belief, and “debunking” is not appropriate. In answer choice (C), you are given problem and solution, which matches your prediction and is the correct answer. (D) is out of scope; a hypothesis is not brought up here, nor is that hypothesis being explained further. (E) is incorrect since the first highlighted sentence is not a thesis, or summary, of the paragraph, but rather an issue that needs to be addressed.

Directions: For the following questions, select the two answer choices that, when inserted into the sentence, fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole and yield complete sentences that are similar in meaning.

Q11
After naturally occurring smallpox was eradicated, the World Health Organization chose to __________ the remaining samples of the virus in hopes that they might be later used in developing the means to combat other viruses.

A eliminate

B duplicate

C preserve

D retain

E extirpate

F cultivate

Answer: C, D

11. C, D

While you might be tempted to stray toward the answers meaning “destroy” due to the previous mention of eradication and due to the danger of the material (smallpox), you must carefully read through the sentence. It informs us that there is hope that the samples may have further uses, so you know they must be preserved. You can thus reject (A) eliminate and (E) extirpate. You are left with two pairs of synonyms, choices (B) duplicate and (F) cultivate as well as (C) preserve and (D) retain, so you must choose one of the sets. You are able to do this by focusing on what is in the sentence alone—the word “later” suggests saving the samples, not working with them immediately, so answer choices (C) and (D) are correct.

Q12
The Magna Carta was one of the most __________ political declarations of the Middle Ages because it declared the monarch’s powers to be limited by the law; although its practical effects were not immediate, it is commonly seen as the genesis of constitutional law in England.

A remarkable

B immense

C pivotal

D recondite

E ancient

F momentous

Answer: C, F

12. C, F

With strong words like “most,” “declarations,” and “genesis,” the answer will be likewise a word of emphatic meaning. Furthermore, the sentence tells us of the importance of the Magna Carta, so you can predict synonyms of “significant” or “revolutionary.” Choices (D) recondite and (E) ancient are both meaningless in the sentence, and you can eliminate them. Choice (B) immense can likewise be dismissed because nowhere is the size of the Magna Carta described, nor are there any synonyms among the other options. While choice (A) remarkable may be tempting, both answer choices (C) pivotal and (F) momentous connote a significant turning point, which (A) does not.

Q13
Though __________ filled the streets, people seemed unconcerned with the appearance of their city.

A detritus

B refuge

C gaudiness

D bedlam

E refuse

F barrenness

Answer: A, E

13. A, E

The key here is that the appearance of the city seems to be lacking, so you are looking for words that imply a deficiency in charm or physical beauty. Choice (D) bedlam could only make sense without the second clause, and choice (F) barrenness is a lack of something, so it could not fill the streets; furthermore, both are lacking synonyms in the other options. Choice (C) gaudiness does imply a lack of taste, but it is without a synonym as well. (A) detritus means “waste” or “debris,” which is an excellent option for the blank, and with further investigation you can see it has a synonym in (E) refuse. (B) refuge is a trap for the careless, resembling refuse and being right below a synonym of refuse—be careful when you read the answers!

Q14
G. K. Chesterton’s sense of humor is exemplified in his often __________ responses to his friend and rival George Bernard Shaw.

A punctilious

B vociferous

C waggish

D vicious

E scathing

F witty

Answer: C, F

14. C, F

The words in the blank will describe Chesterton’s particular style of humor. You are given a further clue to the answer in the description of Shaw as his “friend and rival.” With this description in mind, you can dismiss choices (B) vociferous, (D) vicious, and (E) scathing as behavior unlikely to be shown toward a friend—remember, if the solution would demand further qualification such as “Chesterton was known to be as harsh to his friends as to his critics,” then it is highly unlikely to be the correct answer. (A) punctilious is not a synonym of the remaining two answer choices, (C) waggish and (F) witty.

Directions: Each passage in this group is followed by questions based on its content. After reading a passage, choose the best answer(s) to each question. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.

Questions 15–18 are based on the passage below.

There is an anthropological theory that states that societies may be divided into one of two broad categories by their cultural motivators: shame or guilt. In a shame-based society, the ethical motivations are primarily external; one’s behavior is governed based on potential effects on the social group (such as dishonoring one’s family). By contrast, guilt-based societies rely more heavily on internal motivations; one’s behavior is governed based on a set of internal guidelines. There is no society where one or the other is entirely absent, but the distinction lies in that, based on the accepted values of the society, one will come to be dominant over the other. It would seem that early Medieval Europe was primarily a shame-based society; indeed, the forms of shame-based motivators in courtly society were extremely highly developed, with express social laws governing various behaviors. This sort of shame may be seen to be divided into many forms, such as positive and negative shame; that is, prospective and retrospective (knowledge of the honor one will accrue or the shame one will avoid through future actions, and humiliation or other punishment after something harmful has been done, respectively), ethical and nonethical (dealing with higher, such as theological and abstract, concepts, and quotidian matters, respectively), and so on. These social structures may also be found in the contemporary tales of the chivalric world. An example of such may be seen in the frequent plot device of the knight committing adultery with the wife of his lord. Adultery with the wife of one’s lord is a matter of treason and an explicit moral wrong, and yet the condemnation in these stories seems to focus on the perpetrator’s violation of social norms (treason) rather than moral standards (adultery).

Consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.

Q15
Which of the following CANNOT be inferred from the passage?

A Early Medieval Europe was unconcerned with moral codes.

B Some cultures are neither shame-based nor guilt-based.

C Guilt-based societies have few laws.

Answer: A, B, C

15. A, B, C

You are looking for statements that go beyond what can reasonably be inferred in the passage. (A) is a good choice, because while the passage mentions that it was “primarily a shame-based society,” there is no mention of a lack of concern with moral codes; further, the passage notes that neither classification of societies is without some influence of the other. (B) also cannot be inferred; in fact, it is contradicted in the fourth sentence. As for (C), while the passage mentions the complexity of the social guidelines of shame-based societies, there is no way you can infer that guilt-based societies have few laws. All three of the answers are correct.

Q16
Select the sentence that describes the scope of the passage.

Answer: It would seem that early Medieval Europe was primarily a shame-based society . . .

16. It would seem that early Medieval Europe was primarily a shame-based society . . .

This sentence provides us with the particular focus of the passage on Medieval Europe, narrowed down from the topic of shame- and guilt-based societies in general.

Consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.

Q17
What can we infer about a society that focuses primarily upon a moral code of right and wrong?

A It would be guilt-based.

B It would tolerate adultery.

C It would not have laws governing behavior.

Answer: A

17. A

The difference between the two kinds of societies, according to the author, is a matter of internal (guilt) and external (shame) motivators. What you must consider, then, is where a moral code might be placed. You are given one particularly useful clue in the phrase “internal guidelines” in sentence 3, which, even if it lacks the strength of a sense of moral right and wrong, still allows us to classify the society in the question as guilt based. Furthermore, in the example at the end of the passage, it is suggested that “moral standards” are an example of a trait of a guilt-based society. The answer is (A). Choice (B) is incorrect; don’t be distracted by the description at the end of the passage that describes how medieval Europe, a shame-based society, dealt with adultery. Choice (C) is beyond the scope of the passage.

Q18
Based on the passage, a society that prizes the harmony of the social group would most likely be

A guilt-based

B shame-based

C extremely permissive

D governed by a chivalric order

E bereft of citizens with an internal code of moral right and wrong

Answer: B

18. B

For this question, you must consider the description of the society in the question compared to what you are given in the passage. Early in the passage, you see mention of dishonoring one’s family as an example of a damaging effect on the social group. Societies motivated by effects on the social group are shame-based, not guilt-based, so eliminate choice (A). Choice (B), the correct choice, matches the prediction. Choice (C) is incorrect because there are certainly rules in a shame-based society. Similarly, you can reject (E); it goes beyond the scope of the passage, which does not offer any evidence to suggest that individuals within a society that emphasizes social cohesion do not have an internally regulated morality. (D) is incorrect because there is insufficient information to support such an assertion.

Questions 19 and 20 are based on the passage below.

At the atomic scale, all matter exhibits properties commonly associated with both waves and particles. The classic experiment that demonstrates wavelike properties is the double-slit experiment, first performed by Thomas Young at the beginning of the 19th century. If a beam of light passes through two narrow slits and is projected onto a screen behind the slits, a pattern of light and dark fringes can be observed. The explanation for this is based on an analogy with ripples in water. If we drop two stones some distance apart, the ripples start to interfere with each other, sometimes amplifying when two crests or troughs meet, sometimes canceling when a crest meets a trough. A similar explanation holds for interference effects with visible light; the two slits act as independent sources in the same way as do the stones in water. This experiment provided convincing evidence in support of Christiaan Huygens’s wave theory of light, which eventually supplanted the older particle theory of Isaac Newton. However, in the 20th century, Einstein showed that Newton was not entirely wrong. His analysis of the photoelectric effect showed that light could behave as a particle as well as a wave. Surprisingly, electrons, which we tend to think of as particles, also demonstrate interference effects, showing that they too are waves as well as particles.

Q19
Which of the following best summarizes the findings of Young’s experiment, as described in the passage?

A The waves from independent light sources interact with one another in predictable patterns.

B Two light sources can cancel each other out, creating the observed dark fringes.

C Light exhibits properties of both particles and waves.

D Newton’s theory was permanently debunked.

E Newton’s theory was correct all along.

Answer: A

19. A

The key to this question lies in the analogy of the ripples in the water, where two troughs or crests amplify each other but one trough and one crest negate each other. Likewise, with the light waves, the two separate light sources produce waves that interact with one another and, like the crests and troughs of the water, have predictable results: the light and dark fringes. Choice (B) describes a part of Young’s findings, but you must reject it because it does not adequately describe the whole of his findings. Choice (C) cannot be the correct answer either, because the passage notes that it was not until Einstein that particle theory was returned to the theory of light. And likewise for choice (D); you are told Einstein proved that Newton’s theory was not entirely accurate and so it was not permanently debunked. Similarly, you cannot claim he was entirely correct, so (E) is out as well. This leaves choice (A), which matches your prediction.

Q20
Based on the passage, what would we expect the light fringes in Young’s experiment to represent?

A The light particles from both slits landing on the screen

B The amplification created by the combination of both sets of waves of light

C The projection onto the screen where the light is not blocked out by the object with the slits

D The amplification created by light particles

E The projection onto the screen where the light is blocked by the object with the slits

Answer: B

20. B

The answer, again, comes from the ripple analogy, where two meeting crests are amplified. Thus, choice (B) is likely to be the correct answer. You can dismiss (A) since Young’s experiment is concerned solely with light as a wave, not as a particle, and answer choice (C) fails to take into account the purpose of his experiment: separating a single light source into two streams and recombining them on the screen. As for choice (D), amplification of light particles is mentioned as a possibility, but this is out of the scope of the question. Choice (E) refers to Huygens’s wave theory of light but not Young’s experiment. You have a clear answer in choice (B).

Verbal Reasoning Mixed Set 320 questions

Directions: Each sentence below has one or more blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath the sentence are five words for one-blank questions and sets of three words for each blank for two- and three-blank questions. Choose the word or set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

Q1
Veteran technical support staff members feel that their services are __________ by the use of computer programs to do the same work; they claim that technical support can’t be provided procedurally but rather is a case-by-case effort that requires a skill set built upon training and experience.

A devalued

B tarnished

C ridiculed

D vituperated

E impaired

Answer: A

1. A

The increase in automated support suggests a decline in demand for technical support workers, and the second half of the sentence tells you that you are looking for an answer that indicates that their services are being undervalued. (B) tarnished, (C) ridiculed, and (D) vituperated all suggest, beyond a negative image, a directly hostile one, which is not indicated by the sentence. (E) impaired might be acceptable from the first part of the sentence alone, but the value of their services implied by the second half can only support (A) devalued.

Q2
The spice saffron is made from the stigma of the Crocus sativus plant; the (i) __________ number of blossoms required to produce saffron and the (ii) __________ of the flower makes the spice the most expensive in the world.

Blank (i)

A

B

C

Blank (ii)

D

E

F

Answer: A, F

2. A, F

The first half of the sentence is just background, so it is from the second half that you must take your clues. It tells us that producing saffron is very costly, so you can anticipate that the number of blossoms required is a large rather than small number. Based on this, you can reject (C) unique and (B) meager for the first blank, leaving (A) vast.

The second blank implies a quality of the flower that makes it rare. The correct choice for the second blank is (F) delicacy. (D) color is irrelevant, and (E) hardiness is the opposite of your prediction.

Q3
The field of cryptozoology is the search for animals unknown to science and those for which we have no scientific attestation; (i) __________ physical evidence, it relies upon (ii) __________ sightings for proof of creatures such as the Loch Ness Monster.

Blank (i)

A

B

C

Blank (ii)

D

E

F

Answer: B, D

3. B, D

The hint you are given is that cryptozoology lacks “scientific attestation”; that is, it has no scientific reason to be supported. So for the first blank, you are looking for a word that means “without.” (A) ignoring would mean an intentional rejection of scientific evidence, rather than an absence thereof. (C) needing would work, but there is no choice for blank (ii) that has to do with physical evidence. Furthermore, “relies upon” points us to a limitation of their evidence. Therefore, (B) lacking makes the most sense for the first blank.

With regard, again, to scientific attestation, you can infer that the second blank implies that the sightings are not backed by scientific data, so you are looking for a solution that means “unscientific” or “unreliable.” (E) imagined makes little sense, because it implies the sightings are not just inadequate but fictitious. (D) anecdotal provides us with the sense of unverifiable sightings and completes the first blank with “lacking” for the sense of being without. (F) nominal does not fit at all, as it means negligible, or in name only.

Q4
Companies that give employees the flexibility to (i) __________ their more (ii) __________ responsibilities in favor of more exciting projects see dramatically increased productivity compared to businesses that are more (iii) __________ in their minute-to-minute structuring of daily routine.

Blank (i)

A

B

C

Blank (ii)

D

E

F

Blank (iii)

G

H

I

Answer: B, D, I

4. B, D, I

Because the first two blanks are so close to one another and are directly related, it is helpful to make a prediction for both of them together. Since the employees are being allowed to approach “more exciting projects,” it must be true that they are allowed to avoid the boring ones, so a prediction of “avoid” for blank (i) and “boring” for blank (ii) works well. (B) eschew and (D) quotidian are great synonyms for these predictions and are correct. (A) undertake and (F) arresting, meaning “exciting,” are the opposite of the meaning of this portion of the sentence. (C) supplement misses the mark as well; “in favor of” indicates replacement of one set of tasks for another, while supplement would imply simply adding the exciting tasks while still doing the boring ones. Finally, (E) latent means “hidden” or “undeveloped,” which does not fit the clues provided by the sentence.

The clues for blank (iii) span the entire sentence. The author is comparing companies that allow “flexibility” to companies that do not, so blank (iii) should mean something along the lines of “strict.” Of the answer choices, only (I) authoritarian is a match. (H) lax would describe the more flexible companies mentioned earlier, and there is no indication that the companies are being (G) disingenuous, or “insincere.”

Q5
The neglect of the old theater was (i) __________ in the extreme (ii) __________ of the building, which was no longer safe to enter.

Blank (i)

A

B

C

Blank (ii)

D

E

F

Answer: C, D

5. C, D

The key word here is “extreme,” which indicates that you are looking for a word with very strong meaning for the first blank. Furthermore, you know that the building is “no longer safe to enter,” so the second blank must refer to some sense of structural decay. Thus, you can expect the full sentence to be something like “The neglect of the old theater was apparent in the extreme deterioration of the building.” For the first blank, (A) hinted at and (B) suggested can both be eliminated because they are too weak in meaning for “extreme.” Furthermore, both words mean the same thing, so neither could be the single correct answer for the first blank. (C) manifest makes the most sense.

Out of the options for the second blank, (D) and (E) are very similar-looking words, but only (D) dilapidation refers to buildings—(E) depilation refers to hair removal. Always study the words carefully! (F) radiance is the opposite of what you need.

Q6
The countless (i) __________ days left everyone (ii) __________ for the sudden downpour; the deluge brought traffic to a halt as it (iii) __________ the roads.

Blank (i)

A

B

C

Blank (ii)

D

E

F

Blank (iii)

G

H

I

Answer: A, E, G

6. A, E, G

While you expect the final clause, which is preceded by a semicolon, to be related thematically to the rest of the sentence, grammatically it stands on its own. You can therefore figure out the third blank first without needing the other two. The key here is the word “deluge”—you know this is a major rainstorm. Hence, for the third blank, you can reject both (H) soaked and (I) sprayed because both are much weaker words than (G) inundated.

For the second blank, the key clue is “sudden.” If it was sudden, then you can assume people were not expecting it—you can thus predict a word synonymous with “not expecting.” (D) waiting and (F) anxious would both imply people were expecting the downpour; thus, (E) unprepared is the correct choice.

Finally, for the first blank, this word will be the reason that people were not expecting a sudden storm. (C) humid doesn’t work here, but between (A) arid and (B) calm, you may need to pause for a moment. (B) calm might work—it certainly contrasts with the eventfulness of the weather that followed—but (A) arid is a better answer because it implies that the weather was specifically very dry—the antithesis of the wetness of the storm. Plugging it all in, “The countless arid days left everyone unprepared for the sudden downpour; the deluge brought traffic to a halt as it inundated the roads.” You can see that everything agrees.

Questions 7–10 are based on the passage below.

The origins of the English language can be traced back to the Saxon and other Germanic settlers in Britain beginning in the 5th century CE. The English language’s unusual nature can be attributed to the diverse linguistic origins of the groups that contributed to its development and their role in English society. Although English belongs to the Germanic language family and its grammatical and syntactical rules reflect this, English vocabulary can be seen to be from multiple origins. In fact, a large part of the vocabulary was not derived from the Germanic languages at all but is rather of Latin origin. This can be explained by the influence on Old English of Old French and Latin during the Norman Invasion in the 11th century. By the time of the Norman Invasion, Old English was already a language, with both its grammar and vocabulary based in the Germanic language family. However, the establishment of a ruling class who spoke a Romance language caused significant changes in the indigenous tongue. It is also interesting to note that there is a distinct correlation between the length of a word and its origin—most of the shorter words in the English language are derived from the Germanic languages, whereas the longer words are from a Latin background. One theory to explain this is that these more elaborate and complex words were primarily used by the elite after the Norman Invasion—who would have favored a Latin-based (or Romance) vocabulary—whereas words with the same meaning in the Old English were used primarily by the lower classes and thus fell into disuse. Modern English words, then, concerning more complex and theoretical rather than utilitarian ideas (astronomy, poetry, and epistemology), can generally be found to be of Romance origin, whereas more mundane words, such as pronouns and auxiliary verbs, can be traced back to a Germanic origin.

Q7
Which of the following is implied by the passage?

A English was more heavily influenced by Germanic languages than by Romance languages.

B In the 11th century, English speakers of the lower classes did not discuss abstract, theoretical topics.

C No auxiliary verbs in English can be traced back to a Latin-based origin.

D English owes some of its abnormality to the Norman Invasion.

E Fewer words in English are derived from Latin than from the Germanic languages.

Answer: D

7. D

This question is an Inference question. Therefore, we must eliminate the answer choices that don’t necessarily follow from the passage. (A) is incorrect because we can’t say with certainty that Germanic languages had a greater influence than Romance languages did. Yes, the Germanic influence came first and had a greater influence on grammar, but that does not mean its influence on English as a whole is greater. (B) is out of scope and extreme. Nothing suggests that the lower classes could never discuss abstract theoretical topics. For (C), although we are told most mundane words, like auxiliary verbs, are of Germanic origin, that doesn’t mean that all auxiliary words must be of Germanic origin. (E) is also incorrect because we aren’t given any clues as to how many words are derived from each language family. (D) is correct because it’s directly implied in the passage. The second sentence says that English has an “unusual nature,” and the passage goes on to state that this is due to its vocabulary stemming from multiple origins, such as what was brought over by the Norman Invasion.

Consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.

Q8
The passage suggests that the word “they,” a pronoun, would most likely have which of the following origins?

A Germanic

B Romance

C Norse

Answer: A

8. A

The question states that “they” is a pronoun, so look in the passage for clues as to where pronouns are likely to be derived. The final sentence explicitly states that English pronouns are of Germanic origin, so you can safely select (A) as your answer. Although Old English and Norse are related, this is not mentioned in the passage, and choice (C) is meant as a distractor.

Q9
Based on the passage, what is a likely reason why English has not been reclassified as a Romance language?

A It developed as a Germanic language in its first incarnation, Old English.

B The core of the language, its grammar and syntax, is still Germanic.

C A larger portion of the English vocabulary is Germanic rather than Romance.

D The Normans felt an affinity for the local tongue, which was Germanic.

E Neither linguistic heritage has a claim to preeminence.

Answer: B

9. B

To answer this question, you are required to make a small inference from the text. The third sentence begins with a detour road sign, “Although,” which indicates that the immediately following clause is a fact—in this case that English is a part of the Germanic language family and that the rules governing its structure reflect this. From this you can infer that the structural rules of a language are significant in its classification, which tells you that answer choice (B) is correct. (A) is factually correct, but there is no indication that the language’s first incarnation is related to its current classification, so you cannot accept that as an explanation based on the passage. (C) concerns the balance of vocabulary origins between Germanic and Romance, but while the passage does speak of this at length, no mention of number of words as related to the classification of the language is made. (D) is not an option, as the Normans regarded English as lower class. (E) is incorrect, as the core of the language is noted to be Germanic. (B) is the correct choice.

Consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.

Q10
Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A Searching for meaning based on the Latin root of a word is less likely to be useful in shorter words.

B The language spoken by the Saxon and Germanic settlers entirely supplanted the indigenous tongue of 5th-century Britain.

C The discussion of complex ideas during the Norman era in England was primarily the domain of the ruling class.

Answer: A

10. A

As always, you must be careful about what you infer from a passage. For answer choice (A), you would need to find something in the text that would suggest that the shorter the word, the less likely it may be derived from Latin—which you can find in the third-to-last sentence. There is no mention of the indigenous language before the arrival of the Germanic peoples, so you can dismiss (B). (C) might seem tempting because the author notes that the words used for complex ideas today are primarily those that were used by the ruling class. However, while discussing complex ideas might seem more likely to be the habit of those with leisure time and education, the passage does not specify anything that would allow us to draw this conclusion, and (C) must be rejected.

Directions: For the following questions, select the two answer choices that, when inserted into the sentence, fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole and yield complete sentences that are similar in meaning.

Q11
As modern scholarship continues to dim the possibility that Homer was a single historic figure, the question of authorship of his works has been raised; although we might never know who wrote them, scholars still need some way to refer to the author or authors of the Iliad and Odyssey, so the term “Homeric tradition” has been __________ as a possible new terminology.

A selected

B established

C appropriated

D bestowed

E suggested

F proposed

Answer: E, F

11. E, F

From the sentence, you learn that scholars are in need of a new “way to refer to the author or authors”; furthermore, judging by the tone and topic of the sentence, you can safely assume that the answers you need will have a neutral tone. While it may seem possible for the solutions to render the phrase “the term Homeric tradition has been rejected,” the straight-ahead road sign “so” renders this unlikely. You can predict that the answers will mean “the term has been put forward.” The key to this question is the word “possible” near the end of the sentence. (A) selected and (B) established cannot be correct because that would mean the term has been decided upon. (C) appropriated and (D) bestowed likewise fail to match our prediction, leaving (E) suggested and (F) proposed as the choices that suggest that the term has been offered as an option but no decision has been made. That fits nicely with “possible.”

Q12
__________ commercial arsenic usage has diminished, its ongoing presence in water and soil continues to be a major public health concern, given the extremely high toxicity of the substance.

A After

B Although

C Inasmuch as

D Considering

E While

F Because

Answer: B, E

12. B, E

From the meaning of the sentence, you can see that the correct answer choices will render the meaning “commercial arsenic usage has diminished, but its ongoing presence is a major health concern.” Because the blank is placed at the start of the first clause, you need a sense of contradiction that gives the meaning “even though.” (A) After, (C) Inasmuch as, (D) Considering, and (F) Because all lack the contradiction you need, leaving only (B) Although and (E) While, which are synonyms of each other and match the prediction.

Q13
Early sewing machines were poorly received by textile workers, who feared the technology would __________ the demand for their skills; despite their protests, the sewing machine became popular both in the factory and in the home.

A overwhelm

B diminish

C obviate

D mitigate

E eliminate

F belittle

Answer: C, E

13. C, E

The key to this sentence is to note that the textile workers feared a negative effect on the demand for their skills as a result of the sewing machine. The answer, then, must be indicative of their displeasure with the technology; furthermore, words like “poorly” and “protests” suggest that they felt very strongly about their fear of a decline in their trade, so you must also find words that reflect the strength of their views. (A) overwhelm is the opposite of what you need and can be rejected. (B) diminish, (D) mitigate, and (F) belittle are all possible choices, but none of these words are strong enough to convey the meaning you are looking for. (C) obviate and (E) eliminate suggest an absolute removal of demand for the worker’s skills and match both the meaning and the strength of the prediction.

Q14
The protest march quickly turned into a riot, and in the response by police, several people on either side were killed and dozens more wounded; it would later be __________ remembered by both sides as a tragic accident, and no blame would be assigned.

A indignantly

B mournfully

C spitefully

D bitterly

E soberly

F melancholically

Answer: B, F

14. B, F

You are told in the final clause that it would be remembered as a “tragic accident” and that no blame was assigned. You are looking for adverbs that reflect this and can expect to find synonyms of “sadly,” but you must be careful not to choose answers that suggest vitriol or blame. Based on this, you can see that (A) indignantly, (C) spitefully, and (D) bitterly can all be eliminated. (B) mournfully is an excellent choice because you often hear about mourning of a tragic accident. (E) soberly, meaning in this context “clearly,” does not have any synonyms among the remaining answers. (F) melancholically is a direct synonym of (B) and matches your predicted answer.

Questions 15–17 are based on the passage below.

Kleptoplasty (from the Greek kleptes, meaning “thief”) is a phenomenon whereby host organisms ingest a chlorophyll-utilizing species, typically algae, and use the energy-producing organelles called chloroplasts contained within the consumed species to help meet their own metabolic needs. In this way, kleptoplasty is an example of symbiosis, a close relationship between two different species. Further, it is an endosymbiosis, such that one of the species resides completely within another. Unlike the example of mitochondria, thought to have once been fully separate bacteria that came to live within animal cells and perform a mutualistic metabolic function, the algae are only partially utilized; most of the organism is digested and discarded, leaving only the chloroplasts to be retained by the host. Most kleptoplastic species are unicellular ciliates or dinoflagellates. The only known members of the animal kingdom that practice kleptoplasty are several species of sarcoglossan sea slugs. These “solar-powered” sea slugs incorporate whole chloroplasts into their body cells, where the stolen plastids can convert sunlight into useful energy for as long as ten months in some species.

Chloroplasts produce energy by using sunlight to power a series of reactions that result in sugars that can be used as a food source for the host organism. Algae have genes that encode proteins that act as enzymes that support this process. PRK, for example, is an enzyme that is responsible for the regeneration of ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate, an organic molecule used in the reductive pentose phosphate pathway (RPPP) of photosynthesis. Sea slugs lack the PRK gene, so for many kleptoplastic species, once the raw materials within the chloroplasts are exhausted, photosynthesis ceases and new chloroplasts must be obtained. As a result, until recently it remained a mystery how some sarcoglossan sea slug species were able to sustain chloroplast function for many months.

Genome sequencing revealed the answer. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) analysis of the genome of individual sarcoglossan sea slugs of species Elysia chlorotica that had been exposed to chlorophyll-utilizing algae revealed that these individuals did in fact have the PRK gene, whereas individuals that had not been exposed to algae lacked the gene. Radioactive labeling confirmed the surprising result: E. chlorotica incorporates genes from the algae into its own genome. This process, known as horizontal gene transfer, is common in bacteria and unicellular eukaryotes but is rare to find in more complex species.

Q15
According to the passage, the main difference between the sarcoglossan sea slug species discussed in paragraph 1 and other sea slug species is that

A they can incorporate the PRK gene into their genome, whereas other sea slugs cannot

B they obtain energy primarily by digesting only certain components of algae, whereas other sea slugs obtain their energy from digesting the entire organism

C they obtain at least some of their metabolic energy from chloroplasts, whereas other sea slugs do not

D they lack the enzyme to regenerate compounds necessary for photosynthesis, whereas other sea slugs produce this enzyme

E they lack mitochondria to perform metabolic functions, whereas other sea slugs utilize mitochondria as their primary source of energy

Answer: C

15. C

The necessary reference occurs at the end of paragraph 1: the sarcoglossan sea slugs are “[t]he only known animals that practice kleptoplasty.” The correct answer must match this idea by saying, in some way, that the sarcoglossan sea slugs obtain and get energy from chloroplasts, while other sea slugs do not. (C) is a match.

(A) may be tempting, but the passage does not state that other slugs are incapable of incorporating the PRK gene into their genome, nor is it ever stated that all of the kleptoplastic species can. (In fact, it can be inferred that many do not since the passage says that many kleptoplastic species quickly run out of the enzymes needed to maintain photosynthesis.) (B) is also very close, since the passage mentions that the kleptoplastic slugs do digest most of the algae rather than incorporating them, but they do not use this digestion as their primary food source; it is instead the incorporation of whole chloroplasts that is their primary source of energy from the algae. It is not stated that other sea slugs produce the PRK enzyme, so (D) can be eliminated. Similarly, while the passage mentions that the symbiosis that led to incorporation of mitochondria as being different from the partial symbiosis of algae, the passage does not state that kleptoplastic sea slugs lack mitochondria, ruling out (E).

Q16
Which of the following best expresses the main point of the passage?

A Until recently, scientists found it difficult to understand the exact mechanisms of kleptoplasty due to misconceptions about the relationship between sea slugs and algae.

B Elysia chlorotica incorporates algal genes into its own genome, solving a problem that would leave it unable to survive in the wild.

C Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate is an organic compound used in photosynthesis that kleptoplastic species lack the ability to produce on their own.

D Kleptoplasty is unusual compared to other forms of symbiotic relationships in that the species that practice it derive some benefit from horizontal gene transfer.

E Kleptoplastic species not only use the biochemical machinery of another species to meet their own metabolic needs but can also incorporate genetic material to facilitate this process.

Answer: E

16. E

The passage as a whole defines what kleptoplasty is and describes a surprising experimental result. Choice (E) summarizes both the definition and the result and is therefore correct.

(A) is a distortion of the author’s point. The mechanisms of kleptoplasty itself were well understood, even though the nature of its longevity in certain species were not. Both (B) and (C) are too specific. (B) focuses on paragraph 3 and includes information that the author never mentions; it is never stated that E. chlorotica cannot survive without incorporating the PRK gene. (C) focuses on a mere detail from paragraph 2.

Finally, choice (D) is not actually mentioned in the passage at all. It is not stated that horizontal gene transfer is unique to kleptoplastic species when compared to “other forms of symbiotic relationships,” nor is it stated that all kleptoplastic species use horizontal gene transfer.

Consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.

Q17
The passage provides support for which of the following statements about E. chlorotica?

A In the absence of algae, E. chlorotica typically lacks the ability to synthesize ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate.

B Some of the characteristics of E. chlorotica are not commonly found within the animal kingdom.

C E. chlorotica is the only sarcoglossan sea-slug species that incorporates the PRK gene into its genome.

Answer: A, B

17. A, B

E. chlorotica is mentioned in paragraph 3 as being an example of a kleptoplastic species that incorporates the PRK gene into its genome when exposed to another organism that has this gene. (A) is supported with information from paragraph 2; in the absence of algae, E. chlorotica lacks the PRK gene, which is responsible for producing the PRK enzyme that synthesizes ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate. (B) is likewise supported, since both kleptoplasty and horizontal gene transfer are described as being rare among animals. Regarding choice (C), the passage describes E. chlorotica as an example of a species that can incorporate the PRK gene. Indeed, the scientists were surprised to find that gene transfer was the cause of the longevity of the chloroplasts used by E. chlorotica, but to say that it is the only such species is extreme; it is mentioned in paragraph 2 that other species can maintain the reaction for prolonged periods of time, so it is plausible that they use the same mechanism.

Questions 18–20 are based on the passage below.

John Finnis developed his theory of natural law based on the structure that Thomas Aquinas provided, filling in areas where he felt that Aquinas’s theory was lacking; he also amended other aspects of the theory to respond to a world much more culturally diverse than the one in which Aquinas lived. Unlike Aquinas, who gives only a vague account of the first precepts of the natural law, Finnis locates a specific number of basic human goods. Finnis avoids the charge that his theory falls into the “naturalistic fallacy” by asserting that these goods are not moral in themselves but become moral through human participation in them. In addition, these goods are not hierarchical, which allows a much greater range of freedom in choosing actions. Finally, Finnis’s theory does not require the presence of God. Though curiosity about the nature of the universe is one of his basic human goods, the actual existence of God is not required by his theory.

Finnis’s theory raises as many questions as it answers. While formulating an interesting answer to the “is/ought” problem and giving a much more robust definition of human volition than Aquinas, his solutions create their own problems. His account of the goods is stripped of any method for evaluation. The boundaries of each good are difficult to discern. Further, by asserting that each good is self-evident and equal to all the others, Finnis makes any action taken in furtherance of any of them equivalent morally. Finally, by removing the precepts of natural law from our natural habits and inclinations, placing them instead in self-evident goods, Finnis seems not to be describing our nature at all.

Q18
Based on the passage, what is the most likely meaning of “good” according to Finnis?

A A physical object, such as foodstuffs or textiles

B A morally correct action as determined by God

C An action that helps us achieve a desirable, material end

D Something self-evident that we ought to strive to embrace

E Something that is naturally occurring

Answer: D

18. D

Remember, even in weighty passages like these, all the information that you need is in the text. (A) a physical object is not the right answer because the passage is talking about natural law and human behavior. You can also eliminate (B) a morally correct action as determined by God because the passage specifies that “Finnis’s theory does not require the presence of God.” (C) action that helps us achieve a desirable, material end can be rejected for the same reason as (A). Furthermore, you are given an example of one basic human good, according to Finnis: curiosity about the nature of the universe. (D) something self-evident that we ought to strive to embrace is supported by the text both in the phrase “each good is self-evident” and Finnis’s example of how something is made good by human participation. (E) what is naturally occurring could only be a reasonable possibility based on the repeated usage of the term “natural”; however, “natural law” is a metaphysical concept, so (E) is also incorrect.

Q19
Based on the passage, the existence of which of the following would most likely undermine Finnis’s definition of “goods”?

A Proof of the existence of God

B Goods that demand opposing actions

C The demands of our natural desires

D The definition of additional goods

E A method for evaluating goods

Answer: B

19. B

The key to answering this question is to bear in mind Finnis’s definition of “goods” that you considered in the previous question. You can learn from the passage that they are self-evident and all equal, which points us toward (B) goods that demand opposing actions—if they are all equally important, then how can we choose between actions that would each further one good while distancing ourselves from the other? (A) proof of the existence of God is a poor choice, because while his argument does not rely on the existence of God as Aquinas’s did, nowhere does the author imply that Finnis’s theory hinged on the nonexistence of God. (C) the demands of our natural desires is likewise incorrect because of the emphasis on human volition and the notion that some actions are inherently “good” and others are not—to give in to your desires would not undermine his definition but simply fail to follow his admonition. (D) the definition of additional goods would not necessarily weaken his definition so long as the new goods were not in opposition to his already established goods. Similarly, (E) a method for evaluating goods could help fix a weakness in Finnis’s theory rather than undermine it.

Consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.

Q20
According to the passage, which of the following is NOT an improvement of Finnis’s theory of natural law over Aquinas’s?

A Avoiding the “naturalistic fallacy”

B Removing the necessity of God in his definition of “good”

C Curtailing freedom in human actions

Answer: C

20. C

This is a fairly straightforward Reading Comprehension question. It does not require us to make any inferences from the text, just give the text a careful reading to determine whether each answer choice is referred to (and they all are). (A) and (B) are both listed explicitly under the adaptations Finnis made to strengthen Aquinas’s argument, so you can dismiss them. (C), our only remaining option, is correct, as its opposite is one of the adaptations.